#

Right answers

#			Question			Right answers
1			How is the fuel injection timing altered on a Diesel engine? By adjusting the camshaft drive chain. By altering the injector setting. By altering the fuel pump lift. By moving the camshaft position.			By moving the camshaft position.
2			Which part of the mechanical governor is manipulated by the servo-motor to increase or decrease engine speed ? The compensating spring. The dashpot. The linkage to the fuel rack. The sensitivity band.			The linkage to the fuel rack.
3			As a rule of thumb, the time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at _____ hours. 6 to 8 1 to 2 2 to 4 4 to 6			1 to 2
4			In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air coolers fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers ? The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower. The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have by-pass valves fitted. For ease of installation. They need more cooling water.			The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower.
5			What calibrations are taken to determine piston ring wear on a Diesel engine? Radial and axial thickness of ring. Internal diameter when positioned in unworn cylinder. Ring/groove clearance and butt gap in unworn cylinder. Radial thickness of ring and butt gap in unworn cylinder.			Ring/groove clearance and butt gap in unworn cylinder.
6			What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I Loss of power. II Misfiring. III White exhaust smoke. IV Excessive consumption of lube oil.			I, III and IV
7			In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four stroke of the piston required to complete one cycle which must take place in regular order. The second stroke _____ . compresses the air. is the power stroke. expels the burned gases. draws air into the cylinder.			Compresses the air.
8			The third stroke of four-stroke diesel engine is called the _____ power stroke. air stroke. expansion stroke. compression stroke.			Power stroke.
9			What is the normal material used for Diesel engine cylinder liners? Mild steel. Alloy steel. Cast steel Cast iron. Mild steel. Alloy steel.			Mild steel. Alloy steel.
10			The narrow band of speed variation through which the governor makes no correction and refers to the sensitivity of the governor is known as the _____ speed droop. sensitive band. dead band. isochronous band.			Dead band.
11			In a 2 stroke engine what controls the admission of charge air? Air inlet valve operation. Upper edge of piston. Camshaft position. Position of lower piston skirt.			Upper edge of piston.
12			If water is detected in the generator crankcase what is the most likely source? Leakage from cylinder head outlet connections. Leaking tubes in oil cooler. Leakage from cracked cylinder liner or perished liner sealing rings. Leakage from the transfer passage between cylinder block and heads.			Leakage from cracked cylinder liner or perished liner sealing rings.
13			The best way to ensure engine speed governor stability is to allow a given ratio of what? Speed droop. Compensation. Stability. Sensitivity.			Speed droop.
14			If lub oil analysis results indicate fuel dilution what should be the first action? Renew the lub oil charge. Operate the lub oil purifier. Locate and rectify source of contamination. Take another set of samples and send off immediately.			Locate and rectify source of contamination.
15			How is the timing (degrees advance) adjusted on a Bosch type fuel pump? By the suction valve setting. By the delivery valve setting. By the plunger rotation. By the fuel cam setting.			By the fuel cam setting.
16			In the formula P.L.A.N. how is `N` derived for a double acting two stroke? Eng rpm/120. Eng rpm/240. Eng rpm/60. Eng rpm/30.			Eng rpm/30.
17			The relief valve is fitted in the position shown to prevent overpressure _____ if the main air start valve jams in the closed position. should the actuating piston leak. if astern is selected when the engine is moving ahead. if the cylinder head air start valve jams in the open position.			if the cylinder head air start valve jams in the open position.
18			What is the most commonly used fuel injection pump on large diesel engines? A Curtis type fuel pump An M.A.N. type fuel pump A Ricardo type fuel pump A Bosch type fuel pump			A Bosch type fuel pump
19			When all preparations have been made to ensure that the main engine is operational prior to departure, what will be the final test to be carried out ? Open air to engine, drain air bottles, blow indicator cocks. Put out the turning gear and turn the lubricators. Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick. Close safety valves, blow indicator cocks, fill air bottles.			Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick.
20			What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ? To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intended for purification To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils			To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intended for purification
21			What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oil sump tank? An overflow tank of the Main Engine system oil A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil A Main Engine system oil reserve tank A collecting tank for main engine dirty oil used by the Main Engine			A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil
22			What would you do if the engine OIL MIST DETECTOR alarm goes off indicating abnormal oil vapour in the crankcase? Stop engine at once and open crankcase doors to vent vapour. Slow down then stop engine and cool down for at least half an hour. Investigate the oil pressure under slow down condition of engine. Feel all crankcase doors and camshaft block for hot spot.			Slow down then stop engine and cool down for at least half an hour.
23			What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected the lubrication oil purifiers have in common ? They all contain the same grade of oil. They all contain in-service oils. They all contain waste oils. They all contain extremely dirty oils.			They all contain in-service oils.
24			After work on the fuel system what must be carried out? System bled through at main filters. Filters renewed. Injectors changed. System bled through at the injectors.			System bled through at the injectors.
25			What part is the de-airating tank ? Number 4 Number 6 Number 7 Number 1			Number 6
26			What formula gives engine efficiency? Engine power/fuel energy. Fuel energy/P.L.A.N. Calorific value/B.H.P. P.L.A.N.			Engine power/fuel energy.
27			What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank ? To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel lube oils To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse To act as a purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks To store auxiliary diesel fresh lube oil.			To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse
28			Why is it important to slow down the main engine RPM while water washing the turbocharger ? To protect the exhaust gas economizer. To protect the blower side. To protect the bearings. To protect rotor blades from damage.			To protect rotor blades from damage.
29			In a fuel oil service system where would the relief valves discharge? Settling tanks. Slop retention tanks. Re-circulating line or pump suction. Simplex fuel oil strainer.			Re-circulating line or pump suction.
30			Your vessel is entering a tropical area and high humidity is expected. What should you do to avoid condensation in the main engine`s air cooler ? Decrease the air temperature so proper draining can be achieved from the air cooler. Increase scavenging air temperature to above dew point. Reduce speed. Operate the engine with slightly open drain cocks, scavenging to get rid of water.			Operate the engine with slightly open drain cocks, scavenging to get rid of water.
31			The last stroke of two-stroke diesel engine is called the _____ power stroke. air stroke. ignition stroke. compression stroke.			power stroke.
32			To avoid the possibility of a scavenge fire what important check is to be carried out every watch and more frequently if a damaged piston ring is suspected? The scavenge drain flow through. Overhear the cylinder for noise. The cylinder lubrication. The exhaust gas temperature.			The scavenge drain flow through.
33			What operates on an Otto cycle? Steam power plant. Two stroke diesel engine. Petrol engine. Gas turbine.			Petrol engine.
34			Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier No 2 is running M.E.L.O. sump tank to M.E.L.O. sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier No 1 is now to be set up for the other tank purification, which set up is not possible ? Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank M.E. Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank			M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank
35			What should be the first action on discovering a main engine malfunction? Inform the Bridge watch keeper Stop the engine and attempt to rectify the fault Slow the engine, check pressures & temperatures Inform the Chief Engineer			Inform the Bridge watch keeper
36			What simple crack test can be applied to bottom end bolts? Suspend and ring with hammer. Tensile test. Dye penetrant test. Ultra sonic test.			Suspend and ring with hammer.
37			Why is the ash content of a fuel oil significant? Is useful for determining proper atomisation temperatures. Reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system. Is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine. Indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.			Is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.
38			What is meant by an engine`s critical speed? Minimum allowable engine rpm. Engine rpm that must be attained before the engine will fire. Maximum allowable engine rpm. Engine rpm at which the engine must not be operated for long periods.			Engine rpm at which the engine must not be operated for long periods.
39			Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture. The unit H. The HFO daily tank. The blending unit BU. The blending unit controller BUC.			The HFO daily tank.
40			For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control is used ? Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet.			Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet.
41			Which of these could cause a problem with surging in the turbocharger ? Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side. Worn bearings on the turbocharger. Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning. Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring.			Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side.
42			What can affect the TBN of diesel lub oil? Wear of liner and rings Fuel dilution Wear of valves and rocker gear Wear of bearings			Wear of liner and rings
43			On all ships it is possible to cool the propulsion machinery directly by the _____ . ballast pump. after peak cooling water. salt water pump (main sea water pump). main fire pump.			salt water pump (main sea water pump).
44			How is the gear train lubricated on this Diesel engine? Via the camshaft system. By its own independent lub oil cicuit. Direct from the common lub oil circuit. Via the crankshaft.			Direct from the common lub oil circuit.
45			On a large, slow speed diesel engine what would best describe the bottom end bearings? Thick walled. Direct lined. Wrapped bushes. Solid insert liner.			Thick walled.
46			What is the main advantage of a CP propeller installation? Engine can be run at constant, uni-directional speed. Higher engine rpm. Less starting air consumption. More efficient propeller coefficient.			Engine can be run at constant, uni-directional speed.
47			What does the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level dropping rapidly indicate? Jacket water cooling pump failure. Cracked cylinder liner. Sudden change of engine load. There is a leakage in the jacket cooling water system.			There is a leakage in the jacket cooling water system.
48			You are experiencing blow-by on the main engine but, due to operational circumstances, it is impossible to stop and carry out a piston overhaul. What is the correct action to take ? Reduce speed temporarily and increase cylinder oil supply. No action is necessary. Reduce speed and closely monitor exhaust temperature on the affected unit. Increase cylinder oil consumption.			Reduce speed temporarily and increase cylinder oil supply.
49			What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system ? Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet			Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet
50			What might be a reasonable value for the scavenge air temperature of this diesel running at full speed ? 75 degrees C 45 degrees C 28 degrees C 420 degrees C			45 degrees C
51			When carrying out piston overhaul, why it is important to clean the ring grooves properly? To make the ring fit in the groove. All rings must be changed to make a perfect sealing. So that the piston rings can move freely in the grooves. To make sure gas pressure can enter freely on top of and behind the piston ring .			To make sure gas pressure can enter freely on top of and behind the piston ring .
52			On a Bosch type fuel injection pump how does the rack adjust the fuel delivery? By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve. By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam. By altering the effective stroke of the plunger. By increasing the delivery pressure.			By altering the effective stroke of the plunger.
53			What is the function of valve "PR" in this fuel circuit ? A de-gassing/ HP gas release by very high fuel temperature. A constant pressure regulating valve. A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop. A fuel drain valve in case of engine shut-down.			A constant pressure regulating valve.
54			Why is a slow speed two stroke diesel the most suitable for a single fixed pitch propeller vessel? Easier to reverse and no propulsion gearbox required Less complicated than medium speed engines More fuel-efficient Affords a better engine layout			Easier to reverse and no propulsion gearbox required
55			What would represent an average specific fuel consumption for a four-stroke diesel? 0.30kg/kW hour. 0.25kg/kW hour. 0.20kg/kW hour. 0.15kg/kW hour.			0.20kg/kW hour.
56			What are the parts marked "F" ? Automatic filters. Any of the these. Fine filters. Magnetic filters.			Any of the these.
57			Which of the following is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead center ? Cylinder clearance. Compression clearance. Any of these. Combustion clearance.			Cylinder clearance.
58			In the case of a serious main engine malfunction what would be your course of action? Slow down the engine and attempt to rectify the fault. Attempt to rectify the fault. Inform the bridge watch keeper before taking any action. Stop the engine immediately and investigate the cause.			Inform the bridge watch keeper before taking any action.
59			The injector seen in the drawing is best described as _____ type injector. a heavy fuel oil a diesel oil a forced circulation a water cooled			a water cooled
60			During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The turbocharger starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probable cause ? Fuel valve seized in open position. Scavenge box fire. High back pressure in the exhaust system. Turbocharger failure.			Scavenge box fire.
	61			What determines a Diesel engine`s mechanical efficiency? B.H.P./I.H.P. B.H.P. - I.H.P. I.H.P. - B.H.P. I.H.P./B.H.P.			B.H.P./I.H.P.
	62			What is the function of drain valve "D" ? To drain the oil from the manifold. To drain hydrocarbons and avoid explosion. To drain the moisture from the manifold. To release the air when the engine is stopped.			To drain the moisture from the manifold.
	63			Which type of exhaust manifold feeds this turbocharger ? Booster type. Impulse type. Split type. Constant pressure type.			Constant pressure type.
	64			What is item "M" ? The fuel flow meter. The by-pass valve. The magnetic filter. The manometer.			The fuel flow meter.
	65			Where is the temperature sensor fitted for the jacket water temperature controller? Engine outlet. Cooler outlet. Engine inlet. Pump outlet.			Engine outlet.
	66			When does the exhaust valve "EV" open ? At the end of the working stroke. None of the other options When the piston is at bottom dead point. When the piston moves upward.			At the end of the working stroke.
	67			When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank drain be checked? Every 4 hours. Twice a day. As required. At 0800, 1700 and in the final check round prior to closing for UMS operation.			At 0800, 1700 and in the final check round prior to closing for UMS operation.
	68			Which part is the auxiliary fan ? Number 7 Number 9 Number 10 Number 6			Number 10
	69			What is part number 5 ? A three way valve. A thermostat. A controllable thermostat. A double valve.			A three way valve.
	70			What seal is used between turbo charger turbine and bearings? Plain shaft sleeve. Gaco type lip seal. Mechanical seal. Labyrinth with charge air seal.			Labyrinth with charge air seal.
	71			When taking a set of Diesel engine crankshaft deflections why are two reading taken at BDC position? It is not possible to read the dial gauge accurately in one position. During the rotating of the crankshaft the reading may vary. The second is taken to check the accuracy of the first reading. The position of the con rod makes a single reading at BDC impossible.			The position of the con rod makes a single reading at BDC impossible.
	72			What material are Diesel engine cylinder blocks and covers normally constructed from? Gunmetal. Fabricated steel. Cast iron. Cast steel.			Cast iron.
	73			What should be observed when you make a lubrication check of the engine forced lubrication oil system ? The level in the oil sump tank. The condition of the oil in the sump tank by test kit. Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train. That the oil pressure on the top position manometer is correct.			Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train.
	74			How is the thrust bearing lubricated on this Diesel engine? Via the crankshaft. Via the camshaft. Direct via the main lub oil line. By its own independent supply system.			Direct via the main lub oil line.
	75			Which thermometer always indicates the highest temperature in the turbocharger ? TE TE1 TE5 TEB			TEB
	76			What do you think would be a reasonable scavenge air pressure for this engine running at full speed ? 25 kg/cm2 7.0 kg/cm2 1.25 kg/cm2 0.25 kg/cm2			1.25 kg/cm2
	77			What is the most important step on detecting a scavenge fire? Increase coolant flow to engine. Increase cylinder lubrication to affected unit. Stop engine. Reduce engine revs, shut off fuel to affected unit.			Reduce engine revs, shut off fuel to affected unit.
	78			In a 4-stroke diesel what is referred to as valve overlap? Period when injection and inlet valve are open together. Period when both inlet and exhaust valves are open together. Period when injection and exhaust valve are open together. The total opening period of inlet and exhaust valves.			Period when both inlet and exhaust valves are open together.
	79			What should be carried out before starting a Diesel engine that has been stopped for a period? Bar over by hand for several revolutions Check the reversing mechanism. Turn over on air with indicator cocks open. Check the governor operation.			Turn over on air with indicator cocks open.
	80			On a set of crankshaft deflection readings, what would a reading of +4 signify? The crank webs have closed in by 4/100 mm The main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other The crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre The crank webs have opened up by 4/100 mm			The crank webs have opened up by 4/100 mm
81		What is part No 4 ? The tubestack. The cooling water space. The sacrificial anode. The tubeplate.			The tubestack.
82		In an engine operation, what is the effect called that describes the unstable operation of the governor that will not maintain a steady state condition ? Hunting. Sensitivity. Deadbeat. Stability.			Hunting.
83		What is Part No 7 ? The sediment tapping valve. The cooling water drain valve. The high pressure Lub oil inlet. The water temperature gauge.			The cooling water drain valve.
84		Which part of the mechanical governor does the servomotor actuate to alter engine speed? The compensating spring. The dashpot. The linkage to the fuel rack. The sensitivity band.			The linkage to the fuel rack.
85		What is the term for the volume taken up during piston travel on a 4 stroke Diesel engine? Scavenge volume. Compression volume. Piston volume. Swept volume.			Swept volume.
86		What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops ? Nothing will happen. The level will decrease. The level will increase. The level will at first decrease but increases again.			The level will decrease.
87		Why is there an indicating flap "IF" (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted on the outlet of the piston cooling water buffer tank ? To indicate if the pump is running To indicate that the engine is running To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order. To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.			To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.
88		What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ? Distillate diesel. Gas oil. Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1). Marine diesel.			Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1).
89		Which of the following records the cylinder pressure existing at various positions throughout the engine cycle? A Temperature diagram. A Cycle diagram. A Timing diagram. An Indicator diagram.			An Indicator diagram.
90		What are the components marked "F" ? Fuel heaters. Flow meters. Fuel filters. Fuel pumps.			Fuel filters.
91		You are experiencing major surging in the fresh water cooling system. What could be the reason? The expansion tank is empty. The fresh water-circulating pump is malfunctioning. The cooling water temperature is too low. You have a cracked liner, or cover.			You have a cracked liner, or cover.
92		Why is it important to check the timing on the cylinder oil lubricators ? To avoid high temperature in the combustion chamber. To get the oil into the cylinder when the piston is in the correct position. To get the right amount of oil into the cylinder. To avoid excess lubrication.			To get the oil into the cylinder when the piston is in the correct position.
93		Why is the tightening of the timing chain important ? To reduce vibration in the chain. To avoid wear down of chain and chain wheel teeth and a potential breakdown. To reduce the noise level. To get the right timing on the chain.			To avoid wear down of chain and chain wheel teeth and a potential breakdown.
94		What will the effect be if a fuel injector valve is dripping after completion of injection ? Damage to piston & liner. Less carbonizing. Greater output of the engine. Better combustion.			Damage to piston & liner.
95		On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted ? On the scavenge air manifold. On the exhaust gas boiler. On the turbo blower. On the scavenge air blower.			On the scavenge air manifold.
96		How are the crosshead bearings on this Diesel engine supplied with lubricating oil? Independently. Direct from the lub oil main line. From the camshaft lub oil line. Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.			Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.
97		During overhaul what two piston ring dimensions are taken? Axial thickness and butt gap. Butt gap and axial clearance. Butt gap and radial depth. Axial thickness and radial depth.			Butt gap and axial clearance.
98		If the system pressure is 3.5 kg/cm2, what will be the pressure in the buffer vessels ? Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2 Exactly the same, 3.5kg/cm2 Higher than 3.5 kg/cm2. Lower than 3.5 kg/cm2.			Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2
99		What is item "V" ? A flow control valve. A viscometer. A fine filter. A steam trap.			A viscometer.
100		What could cause engine oil to turn a "milky" colour? The oil is old. Overheating. Water contamination. Fuel contamination.			Water contamination.

101

You have installed a new bearing in the main engine. What is the necessary action to take during the running in period ?

Stop after 30 minutes running and hand feel the bearing.

No action is required to be taken.

Allow for one hour running with appropriate temperature monitoring of the bearing.

Allowance must be made for a running in period with reduced speed and careful temperature monitoring.

102

What would indicate a cracked cylinder liner or head?

Low exhaust temperature.

High lub oil consumption.

High jacket water temperature.

High exhaust temperature.

High jacket water temperature.

103

If the cooling water temperature goes below it`s recommended value, what can happen ?

The fuel pumps may be clogged

Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls

Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls

The engine cannot be started again

Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls

104

The turbocharger (constant pressure) is making "whoofing" noises. What might be the cause ?

Heavy seas from astern.

A faulty turbocharger bearing.

One or more leaking exhaust valves.

A strong counter current.

Heavy seas from astern.

105

What is the purpose of part number 6 ?

To prevent accumulation of air in the cooling system.

To measure difference of pressure before and after the cooler.

To prevent an increase in water pressure.

To be an extra expansion tank.

To prevent accumulation of air in the cooling system.

106

What liquid is used to clean the turbo charger of a large low speed main engine? (high speed air side, half speed gas side)

A chemical mixture of oil and water.

A chemical mixture of acid and water.

Oil.

Water.

107

After fitting a new cylinder liner to a 2 -stroke engine which of the following steps should be taken?

Reduce the cylinder oil flow.

Reduce the cylinder load.

Bring up to full load as soon as possible.

Run the unit on no load for 24 hours

Reduce the cylinder load.

108

What is the effect that describes unstable operation of the engine governor?

Insensitivity.

Hunting.

Oscillation.

Dead band.

Hunting.

109

During manoeuvring with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors ?

No 1 and No 2 compressor on "MANUAL".

Both compressors started at the local start position as required.

No 1 and No 2 compressors on "AUTO".

One compressor on "AUTO", the other on "MANUAL"

110

Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?

The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater.

All of these.

The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.

The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.

All of these.

111

A ship makes an observed speed of 17 knots. The engine speed is calculated to be 17.5 knots. What is the propeller slip?

.0285 %

2.85 %

28.5 %

285 %

2.85 %

112

What type of scavenge air system is applied to this diesel engine ?

Loop scavenging

Uniflow scavenging

Compounded scavenging

None of the other options

Uniflow scavenging

113

The turbo charger turbine wheel is rotated by _____

exhaust gas from the exhaust manifold.

any of the other options.

pressured air supplied by blower number 10.

inlet air coming from the inlet filter.

exhaust gas from the exhaust manifold.

114

Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?

In unit BUC

In units DP and FP

In unit H

In unit BU

115

What are the components marked "M" ?

Magnetic shut-off valves

Microprocessors

Flow meters

Manometers

Flow meters

116

What could cause jacket water contamination of lub oil in a trunk piston engine?

Damaged piston rings.

Cracked piston.

Leaking liner sealing rings.

Cracked cylinder head.

Leaking liner sealing rings.

117

When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank be drained via valve "D"?

Once a day.

At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation.

Every 4 hours.

Twice a day.

At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation.

118

Pipe number 8 is connected to the salt water cooling system. Why ?

For use in an emergency only.

Any of the other options

To operate the cooling system with salt water during cleaning of the fresh water generator.

To back flush the cooling water system.

For use in an emergency only.

119

What is the most likely cause if the main engine exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only ?

The main engine RPM is too high.

Faulty fuel injector.

Cooling water restriction.

The engine is overloaded.

Faulty fuel injector.

120

Under what condition is the scavenge air cooled in the scavenge air cooler?

Constant volume (Isochoric condition)

Constant pressure (Isobaric condition)

Adiabatic condition

Isothermal condition

Constant pressure (Isobaric condition)

121

Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by _____

lubrication low pressure.

not using the auxiliary fan.

a defective fuel valve.

a low air pressure.

a defective fuel valve.

122

Why must the scavenge air temperature be maintained above a low temperature limit?

To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.

To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.

To avoid misfiring and starting problems.

To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.

123

What could indicate a cracked cylinder head or liner?

Presence of water in the lub oil.

Sudden overheating of the jacket water expansion tank.

Increased fuel consumption.

Increased lub oil consumption.

Sudden overheating of the jacket water expansion tank.

124

Which part is the valve guide?

Number 3

Number 4

Number 1

Number 2

125

What is specific fuel consumption?

Fuel consumption per hour.

Fuel consumption for specific speeds.

Fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour.

Fuel consumption at specific power.

Fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour.

126

What is the narrow band of speed variation through which the Diesel engine governor makes no correction to fuel setting?

Dead band.

Isochronous band.

Speed droop.

Sensitive band.

Dead band.

127

How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heat exchanger?

Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger.

Regulating the sea water inlet valve.

Regulating the sea water outlet valve.

Seawater bypassing the heat exchanger.

Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger.

128

In a constant pressure type turbocharger the exhaust gas enters the turbo charger via _____

a separate manifold for each turbocharger.

nozzles on each individual exhaust pipe.

the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold.

the grids of two or more exhaust piping groups.

the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold.

129

In what part shown on this scavenge air schematic diagram is heat converted into mechanical power ?

In the main engine.

In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine.

In part 5, the scavenge air blower.

In part 2, the turboblower.

In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine.

130

What are items "F" ?

Filters.

Flow meters.

Flow controllers.

Thermostatic valves.

Filters.

131

What is the component marked "BUC" ?

The Blend Unit Controller

The Blend Unit Calorifier

The Base Unit Calorifier

The Basic Unit Controller

The Blend Unit Controller

132

What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?

A marine diesel oil system.

A gas oil system.

A heavy fuel oil system.

A blend fuel oil system.

133

At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

Between 1/2 and 3/4 full

Variable, depending time of the day

Between 2/3 and 3/4 full

Full

134

What do we determine from the indicator card to calculate IHP of a Diesel engine?

Firing pressure.

Mean effective pressure.

Mean height of the diagram.

Compression pressure.

Mean effective pressure.

135

What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top centre drawing ?

Transversal.

Cross scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Four-way uniflow.

Loop scavenging.

136

Broken piston rings on diesel engines, if not visibly broken, can be identified because _____

the ring or groove clearances have worn in excess.

the piston crowns have developed hot spots and burning marks over the surface.

the piston skirts show marks of burned oil.

they are darker in colour and lack elasticity when pushed towards the inside of their grooves.

137

A diesel engine block is made of _____ and does not permit welding.

tempered steel.

stainless steel.

mild steel.

cast iron.

138

In an "IMPULSE TYPE" exhaust gas turbocharger, how do the exhaust gases enter the turbine?

From both sides of the turbine.

Via manifold groups led directly and separately to the turbine.

Via manifolds into a common entry chamber.

Via a spacious, single exhaust gas manifold.

Via manifold groups led directly and separately to the turbine.

139

If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?

Cracked cylinder head.

Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.

There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.

There is an internal leakage on the engine.

140

Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the exhaust gas entering the exhaust gas turbocharger "ET" ?

Under high pressure.

Under slight overpressure.

Under atmospheric pressure.

Under a vacuum.

Under slight overpressure.

141

What does a pressure drop across the scavenge air cooler indicate ?

Fouling of cooler air side.

Fouling of the cooling water system.

A reduced cooling water flow.

Increased engine room temperature.

Fouling of cooler air side.

142

If jacket water alkalinity keeps dropping what could be the cause?

Jacket water temperature is too high.

More chemical additive required.

Possible cracked liner/head or leaking head joint.

Circulating pump not providing sufficient flow.

Possible cracked liner/head or leaking head joint.

143

What is the first indication of a broken exhaust valve spring on a Diesel engine?

Smoking exhaust.

Blow back through the turbo charger.

High exhaust temperature.

Low exhaust temperature.

High exhaust temperature.

144

What percentage of Nitrogen is present in the engine intake air?

75.5%

70.5%

60.5%

65.5%

75.5%

145

If you have a fuel injector nozzle with 10 holes, how many clogged holes are acceptable ?

146

What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank?

Collecting tank for dirty oil of Main Engine intended for purification.

Collecting tank for all non-reusable oils.

Drain tank for the piston rod stuffing boxes.

Collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

Collecting tank for dirty oil of Main Engine intended for purification.

147

What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops?

Nothing will happen

The level will decrease

The level will increase

The level will at first decrease but increases again

The level will decrease

148

Inspection of the crank bearing shows the bearing shell was black and hard with patches of black incrustations which had worn grooves in the journal. What could be the cause?

Water in the lubricating oil during service.

Dirt in the lubricating oil.

The wrong casting of bearing shell.

Bearing shell service time exceeded.

Water in the lubricating oil during service.

149

What is part number 11?

The blower ring

The turbine wheel

The blower

The turbine outlet

The blower

150

What kind of scavenge air system is shown on the right bottom drawing ?

Uniflow scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Balanced scavenging.

Uniflow scavenging.

151

Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by _____

a piston ring failure.

a burnt piston top.

a leaking exhaust valve.

All of the other options.

152

What is the purpose of the expansion tank in a Diesel engine jacket cooling water system?

To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping.

To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.

To allow for leakage in the system.

To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.

To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.

153

When checking the tightness of nuts and bolts during a diesel engine crankcase and hold-down bolt inspection, the quickest and most effective method is _____

checking bold clearances with feeler gauges.

tapping the nuts and bolts with a hammer.

checking the stress on the locking plates or split pins.

checking the tightness using torque spanners.

tapping the nuts and bolts with a hammer.

154

At what times during the sea voyage is the main engine in state of readiness for manoeuvring?

In all emergency situations.

All of these.

In shallow waters.

By reduced visibility.

All of these.

155

Which part of a diesel engine keeps the engine speed constant regardless of the engine load ?

The vibration damper.

The governor.

The flywheel.

The manoeuvring controller.

The governor.

156

You notice the sump level in an engine has increased and no new oil has been added. What action would you take ?

Drain some oil from the engine.

Reduce the load and start the purifier.

Stop the engine and check for fuel or water leaks.

Check the level regularly.

Stop the engine and check for fuel or water leaks.

157

The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine is always _____ .

from top to bottom.

from left to right.

from bottom to top.

from right to left.

from bottom to top.

158

What steps are to be taken in chronological order to stabilise a governor of a diesel engine after overhaul ?

Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MIN, adjust speed (P) upward.

Set integrating and differentiating to MAX, set speed (P) from zero upwards.

Adjust speed (P) setting, than integrating, next differentiating from zero.

Set integrating to MAX, then adjust speed (P) and differential D.

Adjust speed (P) setting, than integrating, next differentiating from zero.

159

Loop scavenging, cross scavenging and traverse scavenging are called _____ scavenging, as opposed to UNIFLOW scavenging.

MULTIFLOW.

DIVERSE FLOW.

REVERSE FLOW.

INVERSE FLOW.

MULTIFLOW.

160

What is the most likely cause of reduction in Diesel engine compression pressure?

Piston scraper ring wear.

Worn valve rocker gear.

Leaking exhaust valve.

Build-up of carbon deposits.

Leaking exhaust valve.

161

If the main engine jacket cooling water expansion tank level drops rapidly, what could this indicate?

There is a leak in the jacket cooling water cooler.

There is an internal leak in the engine.

There is a leakage in external piping.

Any of these.

1. Any of these.

162

Experience and feedback shows that excessive oil losses in an engine installation are most frequently caused by _____ .

losses in oil coolers.

malfunctioning of the valves during the cleaning of the filters of the lubricating oil system.

excessive oil in the cylinder being burned during combustion (defective piston/scraper rings).

any of the other options.

1. any of the other options.

163

What part of the 4-stroke diesel cycle is adiabatic?

Compression stroke.

Combustion period.

Exhaust stroke.

Suction stroke.

1. Compression stroke.

164

What preparations are required regarding PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure stand-by?

Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.

Open starting air, start booster pump, start stern tube pump.

Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.

Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.

1. Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.

165

You have a cylinder liner with 8 outlet holes for cylinder lubrication, how many clogged holes can you tolerate ?

1. 0

166

What could be the consequence of inadequate valve tappet clearance?

High exhaust temperatures.

High jacket water temperatures.

Exhaust valve leaking causing possible damage to seat and valve.

Accelerated valve gear wear.

1. Exhaust valve leaking causing possible damage to seat and valve.

167

In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve is open for a period of _____

200 degrees.

250 degrees.

160 degrees.

180 degrees.

1. 250 degrees.

168

If you are going to enter the engine`s crankcase, how should you secure the engine after you have closed the main starting air valve?

Engage the turning gear on the engine.

Close all starting air valves and post a warning notice on the start air bottle.

Keep a man posted in the control room to watch that nobody tries to start the engine.

Close absolutely all valves on the starting air bottle.

1. Engage the turning gear on the engine.

169

If the outlet temperature "Tout" is kept constant at 65 degrees C and during normal sea speed the inlet temperature "Tin"is 62 degree C, what would "Tin" show during engine slow down ?

Inlet temperature "Tin" will fluctuate.

Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase.

Inlet temperature "Tin" will decrease.

Inlet temperature "Tin" will be kept constant by controller.

1. Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase.

170

What is the simplest method of checking the fuel injection point on a 4 stroke Diesel engine?

Direct from the fuel pump cam position.

Checking fuel pump plunger movement with dial gauge.

Checking fuel pump plunger movement with depth gauge.

Remove `D` valve and use spill method.

1. Remove `D` valve and use spill method.

171

What is the purpose of the injection pump delivery valve?

To adjust the injection pressure.

To adjust the injection timing.

To maintain injection pressure in the HP fuel line.

To meter the delivery rate.

1. To maintain injection pressure in the HP fuel line.

172

The timing of the engine is delayed and the exhaust temperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger ?

Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.

Cause surging of turbocharger.

Cause higher air and gas temperatures after the turbocharger.

Cause decreased turbocharger revolutions.

1. Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.

173

What is item "J" ?

The Sea Water Cooling Pump.

A Water Strainer.

The Jacket Cooling Water Pump.

The Piston Cooling Water Pump.

1. The Jacket Cooling Water Pump.

174

What is the purpose of the crosshead bearing?

To transmit piston power more directly to the crankshaft.

To prevent con rod side thrust being transmitted to the piston.

To assist in lubricating the top end bearing.

To prevent lub oil being deposited on the cylinder liner walls.

1. To prevent con rod side thrust being transmitted to the piston.

175

What could be the purpose of checking the fuel pump spill position on a 4stroke Diesel engine?

To check the amount of fuel the pump will deliver.

To check the position the fuel pump ceases delivery.

To check the start point of injection

To check the tightness of the pump delivery valve.

1. To check the start point of injection

176

Lapping a valve and valve seat together means _____ .

machining the valve in a lathe.

repairing by welding.

adjusting the overlapping of the inlet and exhaust valves.

grinding the valve against the valve seat to obtain a uniform sealing surface.

1. grinding the valve against the valve seat to obtain a uniform sealing surface.

177

In a trunk piston Diesel engine how is the piston cooled?

Separate piston cooling oil supply.

By a dedicated piston supply line.

By jacket cooling water.

By the crankcase oil spraying on the underside of the piston.

1. By the crankcase oil spraying on the underside of the piston.

178

Automatic shutdown of the main diesel engine always acts on the _____

manoeuvring disc.

governor.

control air supply.

fuel supply.

1. fuel supply.

179

Putting additives into diesel engine cooling water is primarily designed to prevent _____

freezing.

leakages.

scaling.

overheating.

1. scaling.

180

Why do diesel engine manufacturers recommend grinding the valve seating surface with a half degree difference to the valve seat?

To prevent pitting of the valve seat.

To minimize heat transfer between seat and housing.

To improve sealing between valve and seat.

To avoid sticking between valve and seat during high load operation.

1. To improve sealing between valve and seat.

181

Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer "T" ?

Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used.

None of the other options.

Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used.

Temperature remains constant, same fuel pump viscosity.

Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used.

182

Paint spraying has been carried out in the engine room while the engine was running and the turbocharger was not protected. This could cause which of the following ?

Higher then normal exhaust gas temperatures.

Higher than normal scavenging air pressure.

Higher than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.

Lower than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.

Higher then normal exhaust gas temperatures.

183

What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO) daily tank?

50 to 60 degree C

60 to 75 degree C

80 to 90 degree C

40 to 50 degree C

60 to 75 degree C

184

How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram refilled ?

They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier.

They are refilled once per day.

They are refilled only when required.

They are refilled twice a week.

They are refilled once per day.

185

What is an indication of a leaking heat exchanger on the jacket cooling water system?

Low alkalinity readings.

High chloride readings in the jacket water.

High jacket water temperature.

Inadequate coolant flow.

High chloride readings in the jacket water.

186

What is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead centre?

The compression clearance.

The valve clearance.

The combustion clearance.

The cylinder clearance.

187

How is the gudgeon pin removed on a trunk piston engine?

Force out with an extractor.

Heat the piston with a soft flame.

Heat the piston using water or oil.

Hammer using brass dolly and supporting piston.

Heat the piston using water or oil.

188

What is part number 5 ?

The air cooler

The air receiver

The scavenging air box

The air filter

The scavenging air box

189

What does a decreasing scavenging air temperature mean?

An increase in air volume.

A rising air temperature in the air cooler.

A dirty turbine wheel.

A decrease in air volume.

190

How are bottom end bearing clearances taken on a large Diesel engine?

Compare thickness to new bearing.

With feeler gauges.

Taking leads.

Measure crankpin and bearing diameters.

Taking leads.

191

How can crankcase overpressure be checked?

Checking fuel pump tappet seals.

Inspecting the crankcase relief valves.

Checking the crankcase breather outlet.

Checking the crankshaft seals.

Checking the crankcase breather outlet.

192

How is expansion of the Diesel engine cylinder liner allowed for?

Liner and entablature expand together.

Liner absorbs stresses caused by expansion.

Liner is free to expand at its lower end.

Entablature absorbs expansion stresses.

Liner is free to expand at its lower end.

193

On a medium speed four-stroke engine what is an indicator of engine performance?

Peak cylinder pressure.

Exhaust temperature.

Maximum engine rpm.

Compression pressure.

Peak cylinder pressure.

194

What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

A fuel oil transfer pump

A fuel oil booster pump

A fuel oil ball filter

A fuel oil purifier

195

Where will the Diesel engine exhaust temperature be the highest?

Before the turbo blower.

At the cylinder head.

At the turbo blower outlet.

At the exhaust port manifold.

Before the turbo blower.

196

What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

A four stroke supercharged engine.

A four stroke trunk type engine.

A two stroke crosshead type engine.

A two stroke trunk-piston type engine.

197

Why is a by-pass fitted to the cooling water line of the charge air cooler?

To prevent the air temperature going too high.

To maintain the jacket water temperature.

To prevent overcooling of the charge air.

To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces.

To prevent overcooling of the charge air.

198

Where does maximum wear take place on the cylinder liner of a Diesel engine?

At the top where the top ring changes direction.

At the top where the scraper ring changes direction.

Mid position.

At the bottom of the piston stroke.

At the top where the top ring changes direction.

199

What is item number 4 of this fuel oil arrangement drawing ?

A fuel transfer pump.

A heater.

A booster pump.

A fuel strainer.

A heater.

200

When taking performance figures on a 4 stroke Diesel engine, how is the quantity of fuel delivered by each pump determined?

By the position of each fuel rack.

By the position of the fuel control lever.

By the cylinder peak pressure.

By the governor position.

By the position of each fuel rack.

201

The lubricating oil on the exhaust side of the turbine blower gets dirty after only a few hours in service. What can the reason be ?

Labrynth seal leaking exhaust gas into the oil.

Damaged/worn turbine side bearing.

The wrong type of oil used.

Cooling water leak into oil space

Labrynth seal leaking exhaust gas into the oil.

202

After water washing the turbocharger exhaust side, the blower starts to vibrate. What has happened ?

The foundation bolts for the blower unit are loose.

The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned.

The inlet filer is partly clogged.

The water drain for washing system is clogged.

The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned.

203

What would be the temperature of the oil in the settling tank (item number 3) shown in this fuel oil arrangement?

30 to 45 degree C

60 to 80 degree C

Above 80 degree C

45 to 60 degree C

204

What is part number 8?

The air box

The air filter

The cooler inlet

The air cooler

The air filter

205

What is the most likely causeof a low exhaust temperature on one cylinder of a Diesel engine?

Charge air pressure too high.

Cooling water temperature too low.

A defective fuel valve.

Low air pressure.

A defective fuel valve.

206

Which of the following system set-ups are possible using the fuel arrangement shown here ?

Settling to settling, Daily to Daily tank

Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank

Settling to Daily, Daily to Daily tank

Daily to Settling, Settling to Settling tank

Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank

207

Which part is the exhaust gas receiver ?

Number 8

Number 1

Number 6

Number 7

Number 1

208

How does the cooling water flow through the engine?

Inlet at the cylinder heads and out let at the liners.

Inlet at the turbo charger and outlet at the cylinder heads.

Inlet at the cylinder heads and outlet at the turbo blower.

Inlet the lower liner and outlet at the cylinder heads.

209

What is the purpose of the starting valve fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine?

To allow starting air of 25 bar into the cylinder if applicable.

To block the fuel and air supply unless in "START" position.

To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder directly.

To activate the main air starting valve fitted on the engine.

To allow starting air of 25 bar into the cylinder if applicable.

210

Which part is the exhaust valve ?

Number 6

Number 1

Number 2

Number 4

Number 2

211

What is the most usual damage caused by a broken timing chain on a Diesel engine?

Broken connecting rods.

Bent push rods.

Broken camshaft.

Broken valve stems.

1. Bent push rods.

212

What is part number 3 ?

The combustion center

The combustion chamber

The piston glider

The air chamber

1. The combustion chamber

213

The charge air pressure is low, what is the most likely cause ?

Cooling water temperature is too high.

Dirty scavenge duct.

Dirty air inlet filter.

Leaking air inlet valves

1. Dirty air inlet filter.

214

What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic pipes in this water flow system ?

The construction of the buffer tank.

The air cushion in the buffer tank.

The up and downward movement of the indicating flaps.

The expansion tank.

1. The air cushion in the buffer tank.

215

With full load on the main engine, the RPM of the turbocharger is too low. What may be the cause ?

Exhaust temperatures on the main engine are too high.

Dirty nozzle ring.

The lubricating oil pump is malfunctioning.

The diffuser ring is damaged.

1. The diffuser ring is damaged.

216

Exhaust temperature increasing on all main engine cylinders indicates _____

The air system is fouled.

The exhaust system is fouled.

The scavenging ports are fouled.

Any of the these faults.

1. Any of the these faults.

217

Which of the following components is NOT directly lubricated by the lubricating inlet supply line?

The crosshead bearing.

The main bearings.

The thrust bearing.

The gear train.

1. The crosshead bearing.

218

What is the function of the valve PR close to the lubrication oil pump ?

To act as a high pressure safety valve.

To keep the oil temperature constant.

To absorb pump vibrations.

To keep the oil pressure constant.

1. To keep the oil pressure constant.

219

How does the turbo-charger improve engine efficiency?

Increasing the charge air pressure

Improving the scavenging of the combustion space

Deliver more volume of air to the combustion space

Utilize exhaust gas energy

1. Utilize exhaust gas energy

220

In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air coolers fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers ?

They need more cooling water.

The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower.

The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have by-pass valves fitted.

For ease of installation.

1. The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower.

221

What kind of Jacket Cooling water system is shown here ?

An open circuit

A free closed circuit

A forced circuit

None of the other options

1. A forced circuit

222

In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust valve opens when the piston is _____

at BDC on the suction stroke

just before TDC on the exhaust stroke

Just before BDC on the power stroke.

at BDC on the compression stroke

1. jusbefore BDC on the power stroke.

223

Should water be circulated through the main engine during port stay, and if so, why?

Yes, as the engine has to be ready to start at any time.

Yes, to maintain the engine temperature.

No, in case of a leak developing in the system.

No, as this would result in extra water consumption.

1. Yes, to maintain the engine temperature.

224

If you want to obtain a higher spray-off pressure on the injector, what should you do ?

Adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.

Adjust the fuel pump cam to retard.

Tension the injector spring more.

Tension the fuel pump spring more.

1. Tension the injector spring more.

225

What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders of the main engine ?

Rising scavenging air temperature.

Broken piston ring.

A faulty fuel valve.

A cracked liner.

1. Rising scavenging air temperature.

226

For " UMS " classed vessels, how must the HP fuel delivery pipe be constructed?

It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts out in case of rupture.

It is manufactured from Austenitic Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted in the vicinity.

It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulation fitted

It needs to be a shielded pipe and in case of rupture the fuel leakage must be contained and the alarm sounded.

1. It needs to be a shielded pipe and in case of rupture the fuel leakage must be contained and the alarm sounded.

227

What is the purpose of the injector leak-off connection?

To prevent water-cooling entering the fuel space.

To relieve excess fuel pressure.

For fuel leaking past the delivery valve.

For fuel leaking past the injector needle valve.

1. For fuel leaking past the injector needle valve.

228

How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine?

In parallel with the cylinders.

In tandem with the cylinders.

In series with the cylinders.

In line with the cylinders.

1. In parallel with the cylinders.

229

Which of the following would most likely account for a decrease in main engine scavenging air temperature?

A dirty turbine wheel.

A decrease in air volume.

An increase in air volume.

A rising air temperature in the air cooler.

1. A decrease in air volume.

230

What type of scavenge system is in use in this diesel engine ?

Combined scavenging.

A uniflow scavenge system.

Loop scavenging.

Diverted scavenging.

1. Loop scavenging.

231

Which part is the turbine wheel ?

Number 7

Number 8

Number 9

Number 4

Number 9

232

After how many hours would you consider changing the turbocharger bearings, even though all appears to be normal ?

12000 hours.

25000 hours.

30000 hours.

4000 hours.

12000 hours.

233

During normal operation, the telescopic piping of this diesel engine`s piston are sliding up and down into _____

piston cooling water piping.

telescopic buffer vessels.

the crankcase cooling space.

compressed air vessels.

telescopic buffer vessels.

234

In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard and during the taking of crankshaft positions the rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the engine crankshaft now shown ?

Between TS and TP

Between TP and P

Between P and S

Between S and TS

235

How are the inlet, exhaust valves and rocker arms actuated on this engine?

Indirectly lifted by cam via tumbler lever.

Directly lifted by the cams acting on pushrods.

Hydraulically lifted by cam activated servo unit.

Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster.

Indirectly lifted by cam via tumbler lever.

236

For how long is the exhaust valve open in a 4-stroke turbo charged engine?

200 degree

320 degree

150 degree

280 degree

237

What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine ?

A constant pressure type.

A dual entry type.

A radial inlet type.

An impulse type.

A constant pressure type.

238

What is the structural lay-out of this diesel engine?

Foundation, one-piece motor block.

Separate bedplate, columns, cylinder block for each cylinder.

Separate bedplate, one part crankcase and cylinder block.

One unit foundation and bedplate, separate cylinder block.

Separate bedplate, columns, cylinder block for each cylinder.

239

What is the original power that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder?

The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line.

The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring.

The lifting pressure of the pump plunger.

The mechanical force of the fuel cam.

240

What is the most likely reason for high exhaust temperatures in all cylinders of a Diesel engine?

A faulty fuel valve.

A cracked liner.

Rising scavenge air temperature.

Broken piston ring.

Rising scavenge air temperature.

241

In a 4 cycle engine the inlet valve begins to open when the piston is _____

after TDC on the suction stroke.

just before BDC on the suction stroke.

just before TDC on the exhaust stroke.

at BDC on the firing stroke.

just before TDC on the exhaust stroke.

242

At what moment will the cylinder head starting air valve, shown here, open and allow 25 bar to flow into the cylinder ?

When control air is supplied to the top connection.

When the main starting air is opened from the bottle.

When 25 kg/cm2 air is supplied on top by manoeuvring.

When the control air on top is vented by the starting cam.

243

What would you call the assembly fitted on the piston rod, which fits into a flange on top of the crankcase block opening through which the piston rod moves in order to secure tightness ?

The crankcase sealing assembly.

The piston underside valves.

The scavenging air valve box.

The piston rod stuffing box.

244

A piston of this type is composed of the following main parts:-

piston, piston rings, telescopic piping.

piston body, piston flange, piston crown.

piston crown, piston rod, piston skirt, intermediate piece.

piston crown, piston body, piston rings.

piston crown, piston rod, piston skirt, intermediate piece.

245

What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

A four stroke trunk type engine.

A four stroke flanged type engine.

A two stroke trunk type engine.

A two stroke suspended engine.

A four stroke trunk type engine.

246

What would result from high charge air temperatures?

All exhaust temperatures would rise.

Charge pressure would increase.

Cylinder head relief valves would lift.

Jacket water temperature would rise.

All exhaust temperatures would rise.

247

For a turbo charger is running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump temperature on the turbine side ?

45 to 50 degrees C

55 to 65 degrees C

72 to 82 degrees C

35 to 45 degrees C

72 to 82 degrees C

248

What item is always found on diesel engine lub oil systems?

Reduced pressure feed to rocker gear.

Low lub oil pressure shutdown.

Centrifugal oil filters.

Stand-by lub oil pump.

Low lub oil pressure shutdown.

249

What is the best way of preventing scavenge fires in a slow speed two stroke diesel?

Burn only the specified grade of fuel.

Keep scavenge spaces clean.

Ensure fuel injectors are maintained.

Maintain correct cylinder lubrication.

250

A Main Engine revolution counter reads 69,980 at 0800; at noon the counter reads 90,932, if the clocks are advanced 20 mins. during the watch what was the average rpm during the 8-12 watch?

98.4 rpm

77.2 rpm

115.6 rpm

87.3 rpm

251

What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top right drawing ?

Traverse scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

Uniflow scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

252

Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel engines may be caused by combustion of carbon deposits accumulated over an extended period due to _____

blocked stuffing box drain piping or worn stuffing box wear rings or sealing rings.

slow combustion caused by poor injection.

wrong grade fuel oils used for extended period in the engine.

excessive lubrication of the cylinder liner.

slow combustion caused by poor injection.

253

If fuel contamination of lub oil is confirmed what action must you take?

Change the complete lub oil charge.

Rectify the fuel leak and purify the oil.

Purify the oil and send off another sample for analysis.

Rectify the source of contamination and change the oil.

254

How are starting air valves made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel engines?

Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted.

A copper gasket is fitted.

By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied.

They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed.

A copper gasket is fitted.

255

What test would indicate turbo blower condition?

High charge air temperature.

Turbo run down time after stopping engine.

Analysis of lub oil sample.

Low charge air pressure.

Turbo run down time after stopping engine.

256

What is component number 3 ?

The cooling water inlet.

The lubricating oil outlet.

The cooling water outlet.

The air vent valve.

The lubricating oil outlet.

257

What type of compression takes place in a 4-stroke diesel engine?

Adiabatic

Polytropic

Isothermal

Isobaric

Adiabatic

258

What is the maximum allowable for Diesel engine cylinder liner wear?

2% of liner diameter.

0.2% of liner diameter.

1.5% of liner diameter.

0.8% of liner diameter.

259

What can happen with lubrication oil cooled pistons if you stop the lubricating oil pump immediately after you stop the engine?

Overheating of the piston and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers.

The oil flashpoint will change.

You preserve the oil sealings in the piston.

Nothing will happen.

Overheating of the piston and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers.

260

What is the effect on the fuel injector atomisation if the oil temperature is too high?

Insufficient excess air.

Smoke at uptake.

Damage to refractory and overheating.

Carbon forming on the burner tips distorting flame shape.

261

What is the purpose of the starting valve fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine ?

To block the fuel and air supply unless in "START" position.

To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder directly.

To activate the main air starting valve fitted on the engine.

To allow starting air of 25 kg/cm2 into the cylinder when starting.

262

What kind of scavenging is shown on the top left drawing ?

Single valve uniflow.

Transversal scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

Transversal scavenging.

263

What is the final engine test before starting the main engine for departure?

Close safety valves, blow indicator cocks, fill air bottles

Open air to engine, drain air bottles, blow indicator cocks

Put out the turning gear and turn the lubricators.

Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick.

264

Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be lowered below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated above this value ?

To avoid misfiring and starting problems.

To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.

To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.

To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.

To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.

265

What is the main function of the lub oil priming pump on a Diesel engine?

Priming lub oil filters after cleaning.

Stand-by lub oil pressure pump.

Circulate oil system for starting.

Circulate oil after overhaul.

Circulate oil system for starting.

266

What is referred to as `masking` of Diesel engine inlet and exhaust valve heads?

When the valve seat becomes recessed into the head.

Build up of carbon on valve seats.

Build up of carbon on the valve stems.

When the valve edge becomes very thin.

When the valve seat becomes recessed into the head.

267

In an "impulse type" exhaust gas turbocharger, the exhaust gases of the main engine _____

are driving only one single turbocharger.

are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger.

are led to two or three sections of the exhaust gas manifold.

are entering into a spacious exhaust gas manifold.

are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger.

268

Why is it so important to maintain air start lines clear of oil?

Joints could be damaged.

Air start valves could jam.

Air start distributor valve could seize

Increased risk of fire in compressed air

269

You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is low. What will you do ?

Decrease the lubrication oil temperature.

Clean the system and change the oil.

Increase the lubrication oil temperature.

Start to purify the oil.

Clean the system and change the oil.

270

For a turbo charger running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump bath temperature on the turbine side?

72 to 82 deg C.

35 to 45 deg C.

45 to 50 deg C.

55 to 65 deg C.

72 to 82 deg C.

271

The water cooling space on the turbocharger is damaged and you have no spares. The cooling water must be closed. What steps would you take to ensure least possible damage?

Shut off cooling water and run at reduced rpm.

Run the engine at lower speed with the turbine drains open.

Open turbine drains and tell the duty engineer to pay special attention for abnormalities.

Remove rotor assembly and fit the sealing plate.

272

How should diesel engine exhaust temperatures change?

Rise as engine rpm rises.

All remain the same.

Remain steady under fluctuating load.

Alter according to engine load.

273

What part shown in this diagram ?

A piston filter.

A connecting rod.

A crosshead bearing.

A piston and rings.

274

What kind of scavenging system is shown on the bottom left drawing ?

Cross scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Uniflow scavenging.

Transverse scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

275

In diesel engines, cylinder lubrication has the primary function of _____ .

cooling the piston which would otherwise overheat and ensure that the carbon between the piston rings is cleared

away.

flushing the carbon residue from the piston skirt and wash it down into the scavenge space.

forming a film between liner and rings, acting as a sealing barrier to prevent the escape of combustion gases

and reducing friction between parts.

ensuring that cylinder liner and piston are well oiled so that they will not overheat.

forming a film between liner and rings, acting as a sealing barrier to prevent the escape of combustion gases and reducing friction between parts.

276

If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change ?

They will slightly decrease (by 10 to 30 degrees C)

They will remain the same

They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees C)

They will greatly increase (by 80 to 100 degrees C)

They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees C)

277

An auxiliary diesel Engine cylinder head valve guide is shown. Which are the correct guide dimensions for the nominal sizes shown?

00 : 27.00

12.00 : 27.04 11.96 : 26.96

11.92 : 27.05 11.81 : 27.04

11.65 : 27.21 11.60 : 27.23

11.92 : 27.05 11.81 : 27.04

278

What is meant by the M.E.P. of a Diesel engine?

Compression pressure.

Maximum cylinder pressure.

Mechanical efficiency.

Average cylinder pressure.

279

What is the fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine?

Number of piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution

Number of piston strokes required to complete a combustion cycle

Number of power strokes each combustion cycle

Number of exhaust strokes each combustion cycle

Number of piston strokes required to complete a combustion cycle

280

In a constant pressure type turbocharger how does the exhaust gas enter the turbo charger?

Via two or more exhaust manifold groups.

A separate manifold for adjacent exhausts.

Via separate individual cylinder exhaust pipes.

Via a single, common exhaust gas manifold.

281

Where is the fuel injector leak-off connection fed?

Into the oily bilge collection tank.

Into the `in use` daily service tank.

Into the fuel bunker tanks.

Into the fuel oil separator suction.

Into the `in use` daily service tank.

282

A cylinder of a large diesel engine is 900 mm in diameter and the firing pressure is 80 bar. What is the force exerted on the piston at this firing pressure ?

487,334 kg

299,074 kg

508,680 kg

635850, kg

508,680 kg

283

The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with an unmanned engine. This could be caused by _____ .

the wind and current being favourable.

the wind and current holding the vessel back.

poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.

the viscosity of the fuel being high.

the wind and current holding the vessel back.

284

What is the largest source of energy loss in a diesel engine?

Heat loss through the exhaust gas.

Radiated heat loss from the engine.

Mechanical loss in bearings and piston.

Heat loss through the cooling water.

Heat loss through the exhaust gas.

285

What type of engine is shown here?

A two stroke diesel with spiral scavenging.

A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging.

A two stroke diesel with piston underside scavenging.

A two stroke diesel with loop scavenging.

A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging.

286

What important contribution does Nitrogen have to the combustion process in a Diesel engine?

Assists in the cooling process during combustion.

Prevents the deposition of damaging elements on valves and seats.

Assists in mixing the charge air with the atomised fuel.

Acts as a catalyst to the combining of oxygen and the hydrocarbons.

Assists in the cooling process during combustion.

287

What could cause the turbo inlet exhaust temperature to be higher than cylinder exhaust temperature?

This is normal.

Poor combustion.

Incorrect injection timing.

Engine overloaded.

This is normal.

288

Crankshaft distortions need to be measured and are referred to as _____ .

Any of these answers.

crankshaft distortion readings.

crankshaft deflection measurements.

crankshaft misalignment calibrations.

crankshaft deflection measurements.

289

The fuel delivery pipe between fuel pump and injector, is shown here as a red interrupted line. For " UMS " classed vessel, how is this pipe best described ?

It needs to be a shielded pipe so that in case of rupture the fuel leakage can be contained and the alarm

sounded.

It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts out in case of rupture.

It is manufactured from Austenit Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted in the vicinity.

It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulation fitted.

It needs to be a shielded pipe so that in case of rupture the fuel leakage can be contained and the alarm sounded.

290

The ash content of a fuel oil is significant because it _____

is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures.

reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil.

is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.

indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.

is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine

#	Question				Right answers
291	When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, for example +4, this means that _____ the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre. the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm. the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm. the main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other.				the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm.
292	What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection readings? Bedplate alignment and condition of after peak. Ballast tank condition and bedplate alignment. Condition of ballast tanks and temperature of engine. Bearing wear and bedplate alignment.				Bearing wear and bedplate alignment.
293	You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is high. What will you do ? Increase the cooling temperature for the oil. Increase the lubrication oil pressure. Clean the system and change the oil. Decrease the cooling water temperature for the oil.				Clean the system and change the oil.
294	What is the most significant effect of fuel oil contamination of the lub oil? Increases flashpoint. Removes additives from the lub oil. Decreases flashpoint. Increases viscosity.				Decreases flashpoint.
295	Why would a check on Diesel engine cylinder compression pressure be made? To enable the engine power to be calculated. To check the efficiency of the turbo charger. To check the mechanical condition of valves and piston rings. To assess the engine efficiency.				To check the mechanical condition of valves and piston rings.
296	During regular manned watch keeping in the engine room how often should the daily service tank drain be checked? At beginning of the watch and if water is evident, every hour. Every two hours. At beginning of the watch. At the end of the watch.				At beginning of the watch and if water is evident, every hour.
297	In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power converted to thermal power ? In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1) In the exhaust gas boiler In the main engine In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5)				In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5)
298	The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is _____ a main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller. a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller. an auxiliary engine fuelled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator. an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.				a main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.
299	If you want to obtain a higher lift-off pressure in the injector, you can _____ tension the injector spring more. tension the fuel pump spring more. adjust the fuel pump cam to advance. adjust the fuel oil cam to retard.				tension the injector spring more.
300	If you are taking crankshaft deflections, for which position will you list the reading which was last taken if the engine turns counterclockwise ? Right is PS, left is SB. P S TS Zero				Zero
301	What determines the amount of fuel pumped per stroke with this fuel pump ? The setting of suction and overflow valve. The rotating angle of the plunger in the barrel. The lifting height of the plunger. The setting of the overflow valve.				The rotating angle of the plunger in the barrel.
302	How is the timing adjusted on this type fuel pump? By the plunger rotation. By the fuel cam setting. By the suction valve setting. By the delivery valve setting.				By the fuel cam setting.
303	What could indicate a choked heat exchanger on the jacket water system? Low seawater pressure. Low jacket water flow. High jacket water temperature. High exhaust temperatures.				High jacket water temperature.
304	What is the main purpose of turning gear on a large slow speed diesel engine? To position the engine for starting. To check ease of turning before starting. For inspection and overhaul of engine components. To prevent the engine turning.				For inspection and overhaul of engine components.
305	How are starting air valves made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel engines ? By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied. They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed. Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted. A copper gasket is fitted.				A copper gasket is fitted.
306	What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out on the main engine prior to manoeuvering with regard to the starting air system ? See that the cyinderl starting valve is moving by air hose connection. Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture. Open up the main and cylinder head starting valve and clean pistons. Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spanner.				Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture.
307	What material are Diesel engine piston rings manufactured from? Alloy steel. Cast iron. Carbon steel. Cast steel.				Cast iron.
308	In which stage of its working process is this two-stroke diesel engine? Scavenging. Compressing. Firing. Gas expanding.				Scavenging.
309	The end of the pumping action of this fuel pump is determined by the position of the _____ _____ . overflow valve. fuel cam. pipe plunger. suction valve.				overflow valve.
310	Why blow the engine over on starting air before a start? To get fresh air into cylinders ensuring a safe start of the engine. To be sure that all indicator cocks are closed and there is no passage into the combustion chamber. To be sure that water has not collected in the fire cylinders. To be sure that no parts are loose, or that the engine is blocked from rotation.				To be sure that water has not collected in the fire cylinders.
311	A clogged or dirty lubrication oil filter can best be detected by _____ . high lube oil temperature. visual inspection of the filter elements. a decrease in oil viscosity. the pressure drop across the filter.				the pressure drop across the filter.
312	What determines delivery pressure on a Bosch type fuel pump? The spring setting on the fuel injector. The length of stroke of the fuel pump. The position of the fuel pump control rack. The fuel cam profile.				The spring setting on the fuel injector.
313	What is the mechanism that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder ? The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line. The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring. The lifting pressure of the pump plunger. The mechanical force of the fuel cam.				The mechanical force of the fuel cam.
314	What do you consider to be the most important task on completion of maintenance work on the piston? Starting the engine to see that it rotates. A search inside the crankcase for tools and rags. Patching up destroyed paintwork on the crankcase doors. Starting the auxiliary blower to ventilate the scavenging belt, the cylinder liners, to ensure that the engine has sufficient fresh air to start.				A search inside the crankcase for tools and rags.
315	How is the opening pressure (setpoint) adjusted in a fuel injector valve ? By oil pressure. By spring adjustment. By length of stroke. By camshaft regulation.				By spring adjustment.
316	Under what engine conditions are indicator cards taken? At normal full load. At 75% full load. At any engine loading. Low power.				At normal full load.
317	What is component No 5 ? The oil purging valve The fresh water purger The Sediment drain The lub oil inlet				The oil purging valve
318	What is pipe No 1 ? The cooling water inlet The lub oil inlet The lub oil outlet The cooling water outlet				The cooling water outlet
319	Why should anti- friction greases not be used on cylinder head nuts? Contaminates the engine lub oil. Increases the actual pressure exerted at the set torque reading. Allows them to loosen in use. Enables them to be over tightened.				Increases the actual pressure exerted at the set torque reading.
320	How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (moved by control air pressure and spring) ensured in starting air valves of this type ? Labyrinth seals are fitted. Teflon seals are fitted. O-ring seals are fitted. Piston rings are fitted.				Piston rings are fitted.
321	In the formula for calculating engine power, P.L.A.N., what does P represent? Compression pressure. Pressure at mid power stroke. Mean cylinder pressure. Maximum cylinder pressure.				Mean cylinder pressure.
322	What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ? To collect the system oil in use. To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use. As supply source of the system oil. All of these.				All of these.
323	What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier (Tin) ? 85 degree C 95 degree C 70 degree C 75 degree C				85 degree C
324	Why is the charge air cooled after leaving the charger? To allow more air to enter the combustion space. To prevent overheating of the turbocharger. To lower the exhaust temperatures. To remove water vapour.				To allow more air to enter the combustion space.
325	What is the purpose of a safety valve fitted in the cylinder cover of a diesel engine ? To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder. To open in port so the engine cannot be started. To drain off water and condensate from the cylinder. To release gas from the cylinder by operating turning gear.				To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder.
326	What force makes a safety valve of a diesel engine open? The exhaust gas pressure. The fuel pressure to the cylinder head. The pressure inside the combustion space. The starting air pressure admitted in the cylinder.				The pressure inside the combustion space.
327	At which moment exactly does the safety valve of a diesel engine open? At top dead point of the cylinder by max firing pressure. When too much starting air is admitted. When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the spring pressure. When fuel was retained previously in the cylinder.				When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the spring pressure.
328	Diesel Engine crankcase oil mist detectors are designed to analyse _____ . the temperature of the bearings in the crankcase. the temperature of the oil in the crankcase. fire risk in the crankcase. the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase.				the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase.
329	What is the purpose of counterbore in a cylinder? To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface To facilitate piston overhaul To have good an effective combustion To prevent the piston ring from wearing a shoulder in the cylinder				To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface
330	For how long is the exhaust valve open in a 4-stroke turbo charged engine? 200 degree 320 degree 150 degree 280 degree				280 degree
331	Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank? A thermometer A remote tank gauging system A drain valve (Spring loaded) Quick closing shut-off valves (remote operated)				A remote tank gauging system
332	The upward movement caused by the fuel cam is transferred to the plunger via the _____ on the fuel pump. cam lever plunger spring roller barrel				roller
333	Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing in a current of air which provides clean air for the next compression stroke is called _____ scavenging. cycle. expansion. compression.				scavenging.
334	What are the main constituents in Diesel engine exhaust gas? Carbon Dioxide and un-burnt Oxygen. Carbon monoxide, Nitrogen and Sulphur Dioxide. Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide and water vapour. Nitrogen, Carbon Monoxide and Sulphur Dioxide.				Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide and water vapour.
335	What determines the amount of fuel delivered by a Bosch type fuel pump? The fuel cam profile. The rotational position of the fuel pump plunger. The fuel pump plunger top clearance. The stroke length of the fuel pump.				The rotational position of the fuel pump plunger.
336	An engine`s fuel pump supplies fuel in excess of the fuel consumed and this excess fuel is returned to the pump suction via the _____ non-return valve. pressure regulating valve. fuel rack. plunger.				pressure regulating valve.
337	What percentage excess air would you expect with good combustion in a Diesel engine? None. 0 - 10%. 10 - 20%. 30 - 50%.				10 - 20%.
338	During a crankcase inspection what check should be made on the lub oil? Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, and gear train. That the oil cooler inlet is clear. The level in the oil sump tank. The condition of the oil in the sump tank by test kit.				Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, and gear train.
339	In the formula for calculating engine power, P.L.A.N., what does N represent? Number of power strokes per second Engine revolutions per minute Number of engine cylinders Number of the indicator spring				Number of power strokes per second
340	What fuel contaminant is potentially most damaging to a Diesel engine? Water. Sludge. Bacterial growth. Suspended solids.				Bacterial growth.
341	Which of the following refers to the distance between the piston top at BDC and TDC? The cylinder distance. The stroke. The compression clearance. Any of these.				The stroke.
342	In a trunk type piston, the gudgeon pin is subject to two forces. What are these forces ? Linear and and rotating motion. Vertical force and horizontal force in line with crankshaft rotation . Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque. Exhaust pressure and combustionl force.				Vertical force and horizontal force in line with crankshaft rotation .
343	What represents the available energy in a fuel? Octane rating. Calorific value. Cetane number. Flash point.				Calorific value.
344	What do you call the gauge that measures the concentric position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft in its bearing ? A shafting gauge. A poker gauge. A bridge gauge. A slip gauge.				A bridge gauge.
345	Which of the following alarms on UMS operation are not necessarily provided on the Fuel Oil Daily Tank (HFO) ? Daily tank high temperature Daily tank low temperature Daily tank low level Daily tank high Level				Daily tank high temperature
346	On a small diesel engine how would pump "P" be driven ? By gears driven from the crankshaft. By gear drive from the main output shaft. By "V" belt from the crankshaft. By an electric motor.				By gears driven from the crankshaft.
347	If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen ? The expansion tank will be emptied Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke The blower will slow down A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls				A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls
348	Where and how would you take sample of the oil from the Main Engine sump tank? In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank. At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump. From the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps. After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running.				After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running.
349	What is the purpose of the Main Thrust bearing? To provide forward and aft location for the propeller shaft. To prevent propeller thrust damaging engine bearings. To absorb axial engine thrust. To transmit propeller thrust to the ship`s hull.				To transmit propeller thrust to the ship`s hull.
350	The force tending to twist the material such as the force on a shaft is called _____ compressive stress. bending stress. torsional stress. tensile stress.				torsional stress.
351	In what area of the scavenge air system is heat converted into mechanical power? The exhaust gas turbine. The scavenge air cooler. The charge air compressor. In the main engine.				The exhaust gas turbine.
352	If slight water contamination of lub oil is confirmed what action should you take? Run the purifier continuously. Submit a further sample for analysis after one months running. Run the purifier, checking the water outlet and submit a further sample for analysis. Locate the water leak and renew the oil charge.				Run the purifier, checking the water outlet and submit a further sample for analysis.
353	What is the component marked "P" ? The fresh water pump. The lub oil pump. The piston cooling pump. The sea water pump.				The fresh water pump.
354	How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ? In tandem with the cylinders. In series with the cylinders. In line with the cylinders. In parallel with the cylinders.				In parallel with the cylinders.
355	What is the component marked "W" ? A WAX by-pass temperature controller. A water by-pass buffer. A manual 3-way water by-pass valve. A water strainer.				A WAX by-pass temperature controller.
356	Upon what cycle is the modern diesel engine based? Ideal cycle. Otto cycle. Rankine. Dual combustion.				Dual combustion.
357	The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine is in the number of: piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution. piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle. strokes in each combustion cycle. combustion events occurring in each stroke.				piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.
358	Which grade of fuel oil can be used in this kind of engine (built after 1990) ? Marine diesel or distillate diesel oil. Blend or intermediate fuel oil. Heavy fuel oil. Any of these fuels.				Any of these fuels.
359	On a trunk piston engine how are the connecting rod side thrusts absorbed? By the crosshead bearing. By the gudgeon pin bearing. By the crankpin bearing. By the piston and cylinder liner.				By the piston and cylinder liner.
360	What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of a fuel oil? The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity. The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity. The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity. The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity.				The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity.
361	How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts? By the fitting of steel bellows pieces. By sliding securing mounts. By sliding section of piping. By the selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.																															By the fitting of steel bellows pieces.
362	Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflow Q1 increases so that the float is pushed up by the water to level L`. The value of level L` is called the _____ increased value. level value. measured value. actual value.																															measured value.
363	If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of the measuring points collected by a LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds its preset value parameter, the CPU will _____ activate the MAD (main Alarm Display) and Visible and Audible alarms will be activated. activate the LAD in operation and its visible and audible alarm will set off. activate the TWM (Type Writer Monitor) and print out the obtained error value, measuring point number and time. activates all of these.																															activates all of these.
364	What is part No. 11 on this transmitter drawing ? The transmitter bellow. The feedback bellow. The balance arm tensioner. The regulating bellow.																															The feedback bellow.
365	As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top centre drawing ? A line capacitor. A level controller. A Low Pressure cut-out. A limit control switch.																															A level controller.
366	What kind of valve is valve A, shown in the left bottom ? A spring loaded solenoid valve, activation to close. A pneumatic control valve, air to close. An hydraulic control valve, pressure to open. An electric motor driven control valve.																															A pneumatic control valve, air to close.
367	This is a _____ Wheatstone bridge. rectifier bridge. temperature calibration system. temperature compensation system.																															Wheatstone bridge.
368	What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System are shown here ? Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve. Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve. Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve. Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve.																															Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve.
369	When using a parting tool in the centre lathe what prevents it from binding? Increasing top rake angle. Increasing front clearance. Providing side and body clearance. Tool slightly angled to work piece.																															Providing side and body clearance.
370	The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass valves are _____ electronic controlled valves working in tandem. electronic controlled valves working in opposition. pneumatic controlled valves working in opposition. pneumatic controlled valves working in reverse.																															pneumatic controlled valves working in opposition.
371	This drawing shows a simple mechanical controller controlling the water level in the tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED water level in the tank, in automation this is called the _____ set point. set level. measured value. proportional point.																														set point.
372	What is a gap bed lathe? Gap between the beds. Gap in the cross slide bed. Gap in the bed at the headstock. Gap in the bed at the tailstock.																														Gap in the bed at the headstock.
373	When using the machine vice on the shaper what determines work piece position? Vice base. Fixed vice jaw. Moving vice jaw. Worktable.																														Fixed vice jaw.
374	What is an Engineer`s Stud? Hex bolt threaded up to the head. Threaded rod with plain section. Bright steel threaded bar. Threaded rod bar.																														Threaded rod with plain section.
375	On a horizontal boring machine how is the work piece set up to the boring bar? By measuring from the tool holder. By eye using the tool. Using a surface gauge on the tool holder. By measuring from the bedplate.																														Using a surface gauge on the tool holder.
376	When using the centre lathe to drill a blind hole how is the depth checked? By marking the bedplate. By marking a position on the drill. By noting the position of the tailstock tool holder extension. By measuring with a rule.																														By noting the position of the tailstock tool holder extension.
377	How should tight, cooler end covers be removed? Using a chain block. Using wedges in the joint. Using a flat chisel behind the cover. Using jacking bolts.																														Using jacking bolts.
378	When boring on the centre lathe how are tool angles affected? Decrease in side clearance angle. Decrease in top rake. Increase in front clearance. Increase in front clearance. Increase in wedge angle.																														Decrease in top rake. Increase in front clearance.
379	When cylindrical turning a 50mm mild steel bar what would be the chuck speed? 175rpm 225rpm 275rpm 125rpm																														125rpm
380	What best describes the tool movement on a shaping machine? Vertical reciprocating. Horizontal rotating. Stationary with work piece moving. Horizontal reciprocating.																														Horizontal reciprocating.
381	What is the purpose of the dividing head when used on a milling machine? Using a milling machine for micro boring. Obtaining angular movement of the work piece. Cutting equal sized cuts. Cutting a screw thread.																													Obtaining angular movement of the work piece.
382	When should tubes be plugged on a tube heat exchanger? Only if no spare tube is available. If the fixed tube end is leaking. If the tube itself is cracked. If the packed tube end is leaking.																													Only if no spare tube is available.
383	Which machine would be used to cut a worm shaft? Horizontal milling machine. Vertical milling machine. Shaping machine. Centre lathe.																													Centre lathe.
384	What is the easiest method of turning a taper on the centre lathe? Using the compound slide. Using a taper turning attachment. Offsetting the tailstock. Using the cross slide.																													Using a taper turning attachment.
385	How can a bevel gear be cut on a milling machine? Using a universal dividing head. Using a vertical miller with an end mill. Using a specially profiled cutting tool. Using a universal milling machine.																													Using a universal dividing head.
386	Which can be varied on the shaping machine? Cutting speed. Stroke length. Table height. All of these.																													All of these.
387	On a centre lathe there is a drive shaft with keyway alongside the lead screw, what is its purpose? Auto feed operation of the cross slide screw. Auto feed operation of the compound slide screw. Controlling the tool feed rate. Thread cutting.																													Auto feed operation of the cross slide screw.
388	How is the tool height adjusted on a centre lathe? With the tool post securing screws. By shimming under the tool. Adjusting the saddle height. Shimming under the tool post.																													By shimming under the tool.
389	On the centre lathe what is a collet chuck most suitable for? Gripping small diameters. Gripping large diameters. Gripping uneven surfaces. Gripping non-symmetrical work pieces.																													Gripping small diameters.
390	What instrument would be used for measuring fan suction pressure? Water manometer. Vacuum gauge. Pressure gauge. Mercury manometer.																													Water manometer.
391	In bolt sizes what does AF refer to? Bolt shank diameter. Thread root diameter. Hexagon size. Thread outside diameter.																												Hexagon size.
392	On which machine tool does the work piece not move? Shaping machine. Centre lathe. Planing machine. Surface Grinder.																												Shaping machine.
393	What part of a pneumatic control system is this ? An amplifier. A nozzle/flapper assembly. An integrator assembly. A differentiator assembly.																												A nozzle/flapper assembly.
394	In which machinery can you not add oil when running? Air compressors or refrigerant compressors. Main Engine or Auxiliary Diesels. Steering machinery or stern tube header tanks. Hydraulic power packs.																												Air compressors or refrigerant compressors.
395	What is the name for a milling machine capable of both vertical and horizontal milling? Dual purpose milling machine. Multi miller. Universal milling machine. Switchable milling machine.																												Universal milling machine.
396	On a centre lathe with a lead screw pitch of 5mm it is required to cut a thread of pitch 2mm, what is the required drive/driven gear ratio? 1:2.5 2.5:1 5:1 1:5																												1:2.5
397	When would a three-jaw chuck not be used on a centre lathe? When boring. When thread cutting. When facing. When turning non- concentric work pieces.																												When turning non- concentric work pieces.
398	What is the principle advantage of the three-jaw chuck on a centre lathe? Simple operation. Lighter and easier to use. Self-centering. Can be used with any work piece.																												Self-centering.
399	Which of these locking devices can be used more than once? Lock nut. Split pin. Self-locking nut. Tab washer.																												Lock nut.
400	Which component of a general service air compressor requires most maintenance? Piston and rings. Bearings. Delivery valves. Suction valves.																												Delivery valves.
401	What is measured with a manometer? Water level. Pressure differential. Vacuum. Flow rate.																											Pressure differential.
402	Which machine tool would be used to machine pump casing wear ring landings? Centre lathe. Horizontal milling machine. Horizontal boring machine. Shaping machine.																											Horizontal boring machine.
403	Which of these materials cannot be cut in a machine tool without cutting fluid? Cast iron. Stainless steel. Mild steel. Brass.																											Mild steel.
404	What is item No. 1 of this pneumatic temperature transmitter ? The pneumatic amplifier. The compensator. The equaliser block. The range control setting.																											The pneumatic amplifier.
405	What property must the work piece have to enable the use of a three-jaw chuck on the centre lathe? Not require the use of the tailstock. Concentricity. Small diameter. Parallel length.																											Concentricity.
406	What is the purpose of the expansion tank ? To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping. To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature. To store extra water. To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.																											To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.
407	What is the main advantage of one-piece working on the centre lathe? No need for a centre. Quicker processing. One tool can carry out all operations. All surfaces are guaranteed to be on the same axis.																											All surfaces are guaranteed to be on the same axis.
408	How is an end mill secured in the chuck? Morse taper. Parallel shank and collet. Left hand screw thread. Adjustable jaws.																											Parallel shank and collet.
409	How is an angled face cut on the shaper? Setting table angle. Setting head angle. Altering stroke position. Setting tool angle.																											Setting head angle.
410	If a short taper section is required how is this best achieved on the centre lathe? Using the cross slide. Using the compound slide. Offsetting the tailstock. Using a taper turning attachment.																											Using the compound slide.
411	What top rake angle would be used for turning Mild steel? 27 33 36 24																										27
412	Bimetallic strips can be used in the measurement of _____ flow. temperature. pressure. length.																										temperature.
413	When using a straight tool on the shaping machine what effect does tool deflection have? Decreases tool clearance angle. Increases depth of cut. No effect. Decreases cut depth.																										Increases depth of cut.
414	What adjusts the stroke length on a shaping machine? Block slide. Table slide. Locking handle. Ram lead screw.																										Ram lead screw.
415	When would a faceplate be used on a centre lathe? When carrying out facing operations. When boring an irregular shaped work piece. Cylindrical turning an irregular shaped work piece. Carrying out most operations on an irregular shaped work piece.																										Carrying out most operations on an irregular shaped work piece.
416	Explain the function of a capacitor that loads up compared with a bellow that fills up with air ? They perform opposite functions. The capacitor is a differentiator, the bellow is an integrator. The capacitor is an integrator, the bellow is a differentiator. They have both the same function.																										They have both the same function.
417	The measuring signal obtained to carry out flow measuring is a Differential pressure signal. This is obtained by a certain medium flowing through a _____ a right-angled nozzle system. nozzle system. capillary tube. oriface plate.																										oriface plate.
418	Which machine tool would be used to cut an internal keyway in a gearwheel? Centre lathe. Slotting machine. Vertical milling machine. Horizontal milling machine.																										Slotting machine.
419	Which is the filter of the instrument on this transmitter part drawing ? Item No 4. Item No 1. Item No 2. Item No 3.																										Item No 1.
420	What is the difference between American pipe thread and BSP? Different thread angle and TPI. Both are the same. Different TPI but same thread angle. Different thread angle but same TPI.																										Different thread angle but same TPI.
421	When cylindrical turning a 50mm brass bar what would be the chuck speed? 600rpm 750rpm 300rpm 450rpm																									450rpm
422	How is the range of this instrument adjusted ? With item No. 3. With items 1, 2 and 3. With item No. 1. With item No. 2.																									With item No. 1.
423	What is the normal test for leaking heat exchanger tubes? Fluorescent dye and ultra violet lamp. Hydrostatic test. Air pressure test and soap solution. Fluorescent dye and halogen lamp.																									Fluorescent dye and ultra violet lamp.
424	What is the advantage of the swan neck design of a shaping machine cutting tool? Provides better cutting angle. Easier access to work piece. Prevents tool from digging in. Increases rake angle.																									Prevents tool from digging in.
425	How could an internal keyway be cut on a centre lathe? Drilling and finishing with a file. Locking the chuck and using the main slide in hand This is not possible. Using a milling tool.																									Locking the chuck and using the main slide in hand
426	What material is most commonly used for main sea water lines? Copper. Copper/Nickel alloy. Mild steel. Galvanised mild steel.																									Copper/Nickel alloy.
427	If on inspection, anodes are unworn what could be the reason? Incorrect anodes fitted. Cooler choked. No electrical contact between anode and cooler body. Coolant flow too high.																									No electrical contact between anode and cooler body.
428	On the centre lathe what is the biggest advantage of turning between centres? No chuck jaws to be aware of. Faster speeds and feeds can be employed. Tool can access both ends of the work piece. Work piece can be removed and replaced without further setting up.																									Work piece can be removed and replaced without further setting up.
429	What accounts for most inaccuracies in older centre lathes? Wear in the cross screw. Wear in the headstock gears. Wear in the lead screw. Wear in bearings and guides.																									Wear in bearings and guides.
430	Vibration testing is an integral part of what type of maintenance? Intrinsic surveillance. Breakdown maintenance . Planned maintenance. Condition monitoring.																									Condition monitoring.
431	When using a centre lathe why should short sleeves or close fitting sleeves be worn? To prevent sleeves being caught on the tool post. To avoid displacing loose equipment on the lathe saddle. To prevent sleeves being caught up on work piece or chuck. To avoid sleeves being snagged on gear change levers.																								To prevent sleeves being caught up on work piece or chuck.
432	Which machine tool uses a magnetic bedplate? Cylindrical grinder. Surface grinder. Horizontal milling machine. Vertical milling machine.																								Surface grinder.
433	Why is the speed of rotation of the lead screw adjustable on a centre lathe? To alter the feed rate of the saddle. To alter the cutting speed of the tool when facing. To alter the cutting speed of the tool when cylindrical turning. To alter the chuck speed.																								To alter the feed rate of the saddle.
434	Which of the following would a simple dividing head be used for when using a milling machine? Cutting a flat on a shaft. Cutting a gear wheel. Cutting threads. Cutting a single keyway.																								Cutting a gear wheel.
435	This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring and Alarm System. What is the heart and brain of this Scanning Unit ? The CPU. The MAD. The LSU`s. The LAD`s.																								The CPU.
436	How is a parallel surface achieved on a shaping machine? Dial gauge against the head slide. Dial gauge attached to the tool post. Dial gauge attached to the work piece. Bolting work piece straight to table.																								Dial gauge attached to the tool post.
437	Where is the clapper box situated on the shaping machine? Attached to the table. Attached to the back block. Directly to the ram. Attached to the cross slide.																								Attached to the back block.
438	How can concentricity be affected when using a three-jaw chuck in the centre lathe? Tailstock out of line. One of the jaws not moving. Foreign body between jaws and work piece. Chuck not properly secured.																								Foreign body between jaws and work piece.
439	How can a thread be cut without a chasing dial? By not disengaging the lead screw during the process. Using the compound slide. Bring the saddle to the same start position every cut. Marking the chuck and starting at this spot every cut.																								By not disengaging the lead screw during the process.
440	On a shaping machine where is the tool post fitted? To the back block. To the clapper box. To the ram vertical head. To the head slide.																								To the clapper box.
441	What top rake angle would be used for turning cast iron? 0 5 7 10																							0
442	What should be adjusted if a taper is to be machined on a centre lathe? The tailstock. The chuck jaws. The tool height. Depth of cut.																							The tailstock.
443	What are lathe beds manufactured from? Grey cast iron. Carbon steel. Cast steel. Mild steel.																							Grey cast iron.
444	What change is made for finish turning in a centre lathe? Cutting speed decreased. Feed rate increased. Feed rate decreased. Cutting speed increased.																							Feed rate decreased.
445	What would be measured with a tachometer? Oil viscosity Peak cylinder pressure Vibration levels Engine RPM																							Engine RPM
446	On a centre lathe how is the work piece secured to the faceplate? Bolts screwed into the faceplate. Centre bolt and securing plate. Tee bolts into the faceplate and dogs. Adjustable jaws.																							Tee bolts into the faceplate and dogs.
447	On a centre lathe what is a "live centre"? Tailstock centre that revolves. Tailstock used when drilling. When using the tailstock for thread cutting. Centre used in the headstock.																							Tailstock centre that revolves.
448	How is the surface gauge secured to the bed of a centre lathe? Bolted down. Not secured. Magnetic base. Flat base to sit on the bed.																							Magnetic base.
449	How could drilling and tapping be carried on the centre lathe with an irregular work piece? Using a four-jaw chuck. With the work set up and bolted to a faceplate. Setting up the work on the saddle. Cannot be carried out on a centre lathe.																							With the work set up and bolted to a faceplate.
450	On a centre lathe, when turning without a centre, how much of the work piece may extend beyond the chuck? One and a half times the work piece diameter, Three times the work piece diameter, Half the work piece diameter, Twice the work piece diameter,																							Three times the work piece diameter,
451	What is the usual method of checking the tool height on a centre lathe? Against the tailstock centre. Against a mark on the chuck. Using a rule from the bedplate. By eye against the work piece.																						Against the tailstock centre.
452	When facing on a centre lathe, what controls the tool feed rate? Tailstock. Lead screw. Cross slide. Compound slide.																						Cross slide.
453	What is the main purpose of maintaining a record of pressures & temperatures? To operate the plant at it`s most efficient To reduce running costs To comply with Classification Society requirements For the Chief Engineer`s Log Abstract records																						For the Chief Engineer`s Log Abstract records
454	Which machine tool would be used for accurate machining of distance pieces? Surface grinding machine. Vertical milling machine. Shaping machine. Centre lathe.																						Surface grinding machine.
455	What is the purpose of a "chip breaker" on a centre lathe tool? Prevent the tool from chipping. Avoid a chipped finish on the work piece. Used when machining cast iron. Break up the swarf.																						Break up the swarf.
456	When thread cutting on the centre lathe where is the top rake tool angle? From the angle apex of the tool. From the leading edge of the tool. Tool rake should not be used. From the front of the tool.																						Tool rake should not be used.
457	What provides auto feed on a shaping machine? Table cross slide. Ram lead screw. Table vertical slide. Head slide.																						Table cross slide.
458	When tapping holes on the radial drill, how is the tap prevented from breaking? By advancing the tap very slowly. By using a cutting fluid. By using a very slow speed. Using a slipping clutch chuck.																						Using a slipping clutch chuck.
459	How does a bolt differ from a Set Screw? Shorter plain portion. Threaded right up to the head. Shorter in length. Metric thread.																						Threaded right up to the head.
460	What is measured with a pyrometer? Engine RPM Temperature Salinity Pressure																						Temperature
461	When cutting a steep helix in the centre lathe, as in multi start threads, what tool angle must be altered? The top rake angle must be increased. The front clearance angle must be decreased. No alteration in angles is required. The side clearance angle must be increased.																					The side clearance angle must be increased.
462	When used in instrumentation what does a potentiometer record? Small AC current. Small DC Voltage. Small DC current. Small AC voltages.																					Small DC Voltage.
463	What does the indexing dial indicate on a centre lathe? Position of the cross slide. Position of saddle/lead screw. Speed of the lead screw. Pitch of thread being cut.																					Position of saddle/lead screw.
464	Which of these requires the lowest cutting speed? Carbon steel. Carbon steel. Mild steel. Stainless steel.																					Carbon steel.
465	When using a centre lathe, when would a driver be used? When thread cutting. When boring. When facing. When turning between centres.																					When turning between centres.
466	What cross section is the front saddleway on a centre lathe? Flat. Stepped. `V` shape. Inverted `V` shape.																					Inverted `V` shape.
467	When using a milling machine to reduce the thickness of a parallel key how is the work piece set up once the material has been marked? Set by eye and checked after the first cut. Using a dial gauge on the work piece surface. Marked line set parallel to the table using a surface gauge. Marked line set up parallel to the vice jaws.																					Marked line set parallel to the table using a surface gauge.
468	When using a milling machine to reduce the thickness of a parallel key how is the material marked? Using Engineer`s blue. Using a special fine, indelible marker. Using a scribed line on a chalked surface. Using a scribed line and centre punch marks.																					Using a scribed line and centre punch marks.
469	When turning a long work piece in the centre lathe what is the most frequent problem? Differing diameters due to bed wear. Deflection of the work piece in the centre. Poor finish due to inconsistent saddle movement. Differing diameters due to wear of the tool.																					Deflection of the work piece in the centre.
470	If a leak is suspected in a tube heat exchanger what should be checked first? Fixed tube end for security in tube plate. Tube plates for cracking. Tightness of packed tube end. Tubes for damage.																					Tightness of packed tube end.
471	When turning an irregular work piece in a centre lathe using a balance weight on the faceplate, what special precautions must be taken? All of these. That the work piece or weight do not strike the bed or saddle. That low speeds are used to prevent vibration due to dynamic imbalance. That the tool or tool post do not strike the work piece as the cut progresses.																				All of these.
472	On a centre lathe, when turning between centres why may the tailstock centre require backing off? To allow access for the tool to the end of the work piece. For facing off the end of the work piece. To allow for expansion of the work piece during machining. To cool the centre bearing.																				To allow for expansion of the work piece during machining.
473	Which of the following operations would be carried out with a vertical milling machine? Removing material from a large, flat surface. Cutting straight gear teeth. Cutting a blind, shaft keyway. Internal keyway in a gear wheel.																				Cutting a blind, shaft keyway.
474	What safety shut-down devices will usually be found on modern air compressors? High pressure and high temperature shut downs. High temperature and low lub oil shut downs. High and low-pressure shut downs. Low suction pressure and low lub pressure shut downs.																				High temperature and low lub oil shut downs.
475	What is a normal front clearance angle when cylindrical turning? 0-3 3-5 5-7 7-10																				5-7
476	When cutting threads on the centre lathe how is the required pitch determined? By the lead screw speed. By the lead screw change gears. By the chuck speed. By the cross screw speed.																				By the lead screw change gears.
477	Which machine tool would be used to drill and tap an irregular casting? Shaping machine. Centre lathe. Radial arm drilling machine. Boring machine.																				Radial arm drilling machine.
478	Which machine tool would be used to machine large flat surfaces? Horizontal milling machine. Shaping machine. Centre lathe. Planing machine.																				Planing machine.
479	Which of these materials is cut in a machine tool without cutting fluid? Cast iron. Aluminium. Carbon steel. Mild steel.																				Cast iron.
480	What alternative thread cutting procedure is available on the centre lathe? Using a thread cutting chuck. Using a die nut and spanner with slow chuck speed. Use of a whirling box. Use of a burling tool.																				Use of a whirling box.
481	What is the relationship between cutting and return strokes on the shaping machine? Depends upon the stroke length. Return stroke is quicker than the cutting stroke. Cutting stroke is quicker than return stroke. Both cutting and return strokes are same speed.																			Return stroke is quicker than the cutting stroke.
482	What is the most often used cutting fluid on machine tools? Soluble oil and water. Water. Mineral oil. Vegetable oil.																			Soluble oil and water.
483	When should copper based anti-friction compound always be used? Fuel pump securing bolts. Bottom end securing bolts. Cylinder head holding down bolts. Exhaust manifold securing bolts.																			Exhaust manifold securing bolts.
484	When turning a taper on a centre lathe what could be adjusted? Cross slide. Lead screw. Headstock. Tailstock.																			Tailstock.
485	How can vice jaws be checked for parallel on a shaping machine? Engineer`s square against the head slide. Engineer`s square against the vertical table slide. Dial gauge attached to tool post. Engineer`s square on the table.																			Dial gauge attached to tool post.
486	To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermal bellow in this pneumatic temperature transmitter fitted ? Channel 8. Channel 10. Bellow 8. Channel 5.																			Channel 8.
487	What is the sensing device in a pressure gauge using the Bourdon Principle? Corrugated cylinder. Differential pressure cell. Diaphragm. Metal tube.																			Metal tube.
488	On a centre lathe how can the chuck jaws be prevented from damaging the work piece? Using special soft jaws. Using softer strips under the jaw grippers. Wrapping the work piece with protective tape. Using a sleeve over the work piece.																			Using softer strips under the jaw grippers.
489	What is the system that monitors plant pressures, temperatures etc. The comparing unit. The scanning unit. The loop-back system. The demand display unit.																			The scanning unit.
490	In what sequence do the unloader and automatic drain valves close on start-up of an automatic air start compressor? Both close together. Drain valve closes first and then unloader valve. Unloader valve closes and drain valve remains open when running. Unloader valve closes first, then the automatic drain valve.																			Unloader valve closes first, then the automatic drain valve.
491	What does the term `up milling` describe when using a horizontal milling machine? When tool rotation direction opposes feed direction. When cutting a vertical surface. When cutting a slot using a horizontal milling machine. When cutting a chamfer.																		When tool rotation direction opposes feed direction.
492	How would a "V" slot best be cut on a Universal milling machine? Mount the work piece at an angle using horizontal arbour. Using an end mill and setting the head at the appropriate angle. Using an end mill with the work mounted at an angle. Using a specially shaped cutter.																		Using an end mill and setting the head at the appropriate angle.
493	When drilling what could account for an enlarged hole diameter? Unequal drill point angle. Small clearance angle. Too large clearance angle. Unequal length edges.																		Unequal length edges.
494	How is the radius put on thread crests? Grinding the threading tool to the correct shape. Using a hand-chasing tool. Using a hand file. Using a separate, correctly ground tool.																		Using a hand-chasing tool.
495	Why is the centre lathe the most popular onboard machine tool? Easy to install Easy to operate Easy to maintain Most versatile																		Most versatile
496	Which machine tool would be used to cut male threads? Horizontal milling machine. Centre lathe. Boring machine. Vertical milling machine.																		Centre lathe.
497	What method does a Pneumercator gauge use? Capacitor. Diaphragm. Pressure transducer. Compressed air.																		Compressed air.
498	What effect has setting the tool too high on a centre lathe? Increased front clearance. Reduced top rake angle. Reduced front clearance angle. Increased relief angle.																		Reduced front clearance angle.
499	Why must a close fitting, buttoned up overall be worn when using a lathe? To prevent swarf chips flying inside the overall. All of these. To avoid catching on the tool post. To avoid medallions getting caught on the work piece.																		All of these.
500	What is the term when using multi tools on a single shaft on a horizontal milling machine? Process milling. Multi-tool milling. Pattern milling. Gang milling.																		Gang milling.
501	What is the most important item in thread cutting on the centre lathe? Travelling work steady. Compound slide. Automatic cross slide feed. Indexing dial.																	Indexing dial.
502	When repacking soft packed glands how should the joins be spaced? 90 180 45 60																	180
503	Which of these requires the highest cutting speed? Bronze Cast iron Aluminium Brass																	Aluminium
504	When would a travelling steady be used on a centre lathe? When cutting a taper. When turning a long work piece. When turning hard carbon steel. When turning between centres.																	When turning a long work piece.
505	When is it permissible to use a hand file on a lathe? For removing sharp edges. To improve the finish. Producing chamfers. Never.																	For removing sharp edges.
506	Zinc rods in a refrigeration system are found in the _____ gas side of the condenser. evaporator. compressor crankcase. salt water side of the condenser.																	salt water side of the condenser.
507	What is the main safety consideration when using the shaper? Dislodging work piece. Removal of the stroke-adjusting handle. Projection of the ram slide behind the machine. Flying swarf chips.																	Projection of the ram slide behind the machine.
508	What top rake angle would be used on a lathe tool for cutting medium carbon steel? 5 20 15 15																	15
509	What is the advantage of the four- jaw chuck on a centre lathe? Jaws can grip internally and externally. Independent jaws allow gripping of non-symmetrical work pieces. More positive grip on the work piece. Can be used for facing and boring.																	Independent jaws allow gripping of non-symmetrical work pieces.
510	What is a parting tool used for on the centre lathe? Cutting chamfers. Cutting finished work from the stock bar. Face finishing. Thread cutting.																	Cutting finished work from the stock bar.
511	When making heavy cuts on a milling machine how is the work piece secured? Using magnetic base. Using clamps, dogs and stops. Using the vice. Using clamps.																Using clamps, dogs and stops.
512	What tool fitting method is normally found in the tailstock of a centre lathe? Parallel holder with camlock fitting. Morse taper. Three jaw chuck. Threaded tool holder.																Morse taper.
513	What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a horizontal line through it) of the drawing indicated an automation schematic diagram ? A pneumatic instrument. An electronic instrument. An instrument fitted in a central panel. An instrument fitted in the main control console.																An instrument fitted in a central panel.
514	What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line form the top (a blank circle) indicate in an automation schematic diagram ? An indicator. A controller. An instrument. A transmitter.																An instrument.
515	What does a non-articulated full line indicate in an automation schematic drawing ? (the third line from top shown here) A pneumatic steering line. A measuring line. An instrument line. An electric steering line.																A measuring line.
516	Which is the correct method for removing intact engineers studs? Stud box. Drill and use stud remover. Pipe wrench. Self grip wrench.																Stud box.
517	What would be a suitable feed speed when rough turning alloy steel in a centre lathe? 0.5mm/rev. 0.1mm/rev. 0.01mm/rev. 0.25mm/rev.																0.1mm/rev.
518	When using a centtre lathe, what would be used for turning short tapers as in chamfers? Cross slide. Face plate. Compound slide. Suitable cutting tool.																Compound slide.
519	On a centre lathe what advantage is there in using a mandrel on a bored work piece? Prevents damage from jaws. Ease of centring. Allows for one-piece working. More solid fastening of work piece.																Allows for one-piece working.
520	What effect has setting the tool too low on a centre lathe? Reduced wedge angle. Increased top rake angle. Reduced top rake angle. Reduced front clearance angle.																Reduced top rake angle.
521	What is Part No. 5 ? The Pressure adjuster. The Pressure bearing. The Differential adjusting nut. The Spring holder.															The Differential adjusting nut.
522	What is part No. 1 ? The Pressure knob. The Differentiator. The Measuring scale. The Adjusting knob.															The Adjusting knob.
523	Which of the following could be carried out in the shaping machine? External shaft keyway. Internal keyway. Reducing shaft diameters. Cutting a `T` slot.															Internal keyway.
524	When boring on the centre lathe, what is the most usual cause of chatter? Lack of rigidity afforded by the boring bar. Incorrect cutting speed. Incorrect feed rate. Incorrect tool angles.															Lack of rigidity afforded by the boring bar.
525	Where is the true rake angle measured on a centre lathe tool? From tool front. From tool point. From tool trailing edge. From tool cutting edge.															From tool cutting edge.
526	Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and have as characteristics that _____ between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists. thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are compensated for. minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated for by a regulator/compensator. the current is calibrated by a compensation system.															between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists.
527	What would be a suitable feed speed when rough turning brass in a centre lathe? 0.1mm/rev. 0.15mm/rev. 0.25mm/rev. 1.0mm/rev.															0.25mm/rev.
528	How is a centtre lathe chuck usually fastened to the headstock? Bolted to a faceplate. With a right hand screw thread. With a left hand screw thread. Morse taper.															With a right hand screw thread.
529	Which part of this machinery scanning system collects the incoming data from instruments and transducers ? The MAD. The TWM. The LSU`s. The CPU.															The LSU`s.
530	What is the primary function of the cutting fluid when using a machine tool? Cool the swarf. Produce a better finish. Reduce friction between tool and work piece. Cool the cutting tool.															Reduce friction between tool and work piece.
531	What would be the drill point angle for drilling aluminium? 120 140 110 100														140
532	Why would the stroke length be adjusted on a shaping machine? This is not necessary. To increase the feed rate. To accommodate varying lengths of work piece. To alter cutting speed.														To accommodate varying lengths of work piece.
533	What jointing material is most suitable for high-pressure steam lines? General purpose. Neoprene. Wire reinforced asbestos. Rubber.														Wire reinforced asbestos.
534	The span of this pneumatic transmitter is set by adjusting or tensioning _____ part No 15. part No 10. part No 11. part No 9.														part No 9.
535	What would be the drill point angle for drilling mild steel? 100 120 140 110														120
536	When machining a long length of raw material on the centre lathe how is this accommodated? By using a steady. By projecting through the back of the headstock. It can`t, the material has to be sawn into shorter lengths. By removing the tailstock.														By projecting through the back of the headstock.
537	What would be the result if after period of time the tension of spring S should weaken on this pneumatic amplifier ? It will destabilise the amplifier. It will not have any effect. It would increase the output pressure Pu. It would decrease the output pressure Pu.														It would increase the output pressure Pu.
538	Between which values (expressed in psi) can setting of the Sv (set value or desired value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected? Between 3 and 15 psi. Between 0 and 15 psi. Between 0 and 20 psi. Between 2 and 2.75 psi.														Between 3 and 15 psi.
539	On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, which part is amplifying the signal ? Part No. 2. Part No. 3. Part No. 4. Part No. 1.														Part No. 4.
540	What does a thick articulated line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the top articulated line shown here) An instrument line. A process line. A steering line. A measuring line.														A process line.
541	When using the shaping machine what is the advantage in using the vice with jaws parallel to the tool travel? Easier access to work piece. Usually allows a shorter stroke. Fixed jaw takes the tool thrust. Guarantees parallel operation.													Usually allows a shorter stroke.
542	What is a hydrometer used to check? Distilled water. Battery electrolyte. Sewage treatment plant discharge. Chlorine content of drinking water.													Battery electrolyte.
543	On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does the pressure of the process (steam, oil, water) act ? Item No. 4. Item No. 1. Item No. 2. Item No. 3.													Item No. 2.
544	Which part adjusts the proportional band of this pneumatic transmitter ? Part No. 8. Part No. 9. Part No. 10. Part No. 7.													Part No. 10.
545	As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top right drawing ? A temperature controller. A temperature transmitter. A thermometer. A manometer.													A thermometer.
546	In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with air through the Restrictor Valve `R`. In the electrical equivalent _____ the current increases over time. the capacitor allows Voltage built up over the resistor. the capacitor takes the place of the bellow. the Voltage U2 represent the equivalent of the input air.													the capacitor takes the place of the bellow.
547	Where would you find this instrument on board a ship ? In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel. Near the fuel, lubricating oil or water piping. In the Engine Control Room. In the Boiler Control Panel.													Near the fuel, lubricating oil or water piping.
548	The difference between the desired value (level L) and the measured value (level L`) is called _____ the measuring fault. the differential value. the offset. the inclination.													the offset.
549	How is the zero setting of this temperature transmitter adjusted ? By item No. 2. By item No. 3. By calibration of items 1, 2 and 3. By item No. 1.													By item No. 1.
550	What could cause a taper when cylindrical turning on a centre lathe? Worn cross slide. Worn headstock bearings. Chuck not centred. Worn lead screw.													Worn headstock bearings.
551	What does a broken or dotted line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the second line from top shown here) A steering line. A measuring line. An instrument line. A pneumatic line.												A steering line.
552	What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units in this electrical amplifier equivalent ? Voltage U2. Resistance R1. Resistance R2. Voltage U1.												Voltage U1.
553	The LSU`s (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow, level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and digital tranducers. What is a digital transducer ? A Digital Transducer gives a direct " on " or " off " signal and involve logic transducers. A digital transducer gives a continue signal , example 0 - 100 mV. A digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analog tranducer which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi. A digital transducer works on AC voltage.												A Digital Transducer gives a direct " on " or " off " signal and involve logic transducers.
554	Comparing this pneumatic control unit with the equivalent electrical amplifier. What takes the place of the air restrictor passage used in the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in the electrical equivalent ? Voltage U1. Voltage U2. Resistor R1. Resistor R2.												Resistor R1.
555	How is stern tube wear down measured when in dry-dock? By measuring the lift on the shaft. By a poker gauge, inserted in the plugm above the stern tube boss. By blade feelers inserted in the after seal. By blade feelers inserted in the forward bush from the engine room.												By a poker gauge, inserted in the plugm above the stern tube boss.
556	What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrument symbol (drawn on the bottom line) indicate if found in an automation schematic drawing ? First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Controlling. First letter: Measuring, Second letter: Steering. First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Working function. First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function.												First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function.
557	Which is the exhaust or air vent port to the atmosphere shown on this pneumatic transmitter ? Air passage 15. Air passage 12. Air passage 13. Air passage 14.												Air passage 15.
558	What takes the place of the output pressure of the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in this electrical amplifier equivalent ? Voltage U2. Resistor R1. Resistor R2. Voltage U1.												Voltage U2.
559	For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screw item No 2 fitted on the spring blade of this pneumatic amplifier ? To control the rate of amplification response. To adjust the valve stem distance. To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially. To control the nozzle back pressure.												To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially.
560	What does a thermistor rely upon? Inert gas. Bi-metal strip. Metallic conductor. Semi conductor.												Semi conductor.
561	What is the most common method for securing the work piece when using the shaping machine? Clamped in a machine vice. Clamped to table. Dogs and stops. Bolted to table.											Clamped in a machine vice.
562	What is the correct name of item No. 2 shown here ? Restrictor nozzle. Flapper nozzle. Filter plug. Connecting plug.											Connecting plug.
563	What important periodical maintenance checks are required on nozzle/flapper assemblies of pneumatic instruments ? Exchange of nozzle and flapper. Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper. Exchange packings on the nozzle and flapper. Redrilling of the nozzle.											Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper.
564	Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted so that any impurity present is removed. Where is this filter fitted ? In air connecting line, plug No 5. In front of the nozzle item No 2. In the main supply line to each individual instrument. In the base of the amplifier, filter plug No 4.											In the base of the amplifier, filter plug No 4.
565	What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines? Wire reinforced asbestos joints. Preformed neoprene joints Solid copper joints. General purpose asbestos joints.											Wire reinforced asbestos joints.
566	In service, a pump shaft becomes overheated. What effect will this have on the ball-bearing? The inner ring will expand. The lubricating oil will burn. The outer ring will contract. The individual balls will distort.											The inner ring will expand.
567	Which machine tool would be used to cut bevel gears? Horizontal milling machine. Vertical milling machine. Shaping machine. Slotting machine.											Horizontal milling machine.
568	How is the work piece centred in a cantre lathe four-jaw chuck? By measuring from the lathe bed. Using feeler gauges against the tool post. By eye using the tool point. Using a dial gauge against the work piece.											Using a dial gauge against the work piece.
569	Re-conditioning part 4 and part 7 of this valve using carborundum paste is called _____ ? burnishing. re-packing. finishing. grinding.											grinding.
570	What is a Grub Screw used for? Securing split cams. Securing components to a shaft. Clamping machined parts. Fastening flanges.											Securing components to a shaft.
571	What instrument uses a Venturi? Pressure gauge. Vacuum gauge. Flow meter. Differential pressure gauge.										Flow meter.
572	Why is one tube end a packed gland in tube coolers? Ease of replacing the tubes. Allow for expansion of the tubes. To simplify assembly. Tubes can easily be repacked if leaking.										Allow for expansion of the tubes.
573	If the valve wheel (5) is moving very freely, but you suspect that the valve is neither opening nor closing, what are you going to check first ? Open gear box (4) and check if the valve is greased. Open the valve wheel spindle and check that it is not broken. Remove the complete valve assembly for overhaul. Open gear box (4) and check if the sheer pin is broken.										Open gear box (4) and check if the sheer pin is broken.
574	What item must be regularly inspected in SW heat exchangers? Tube plate for damage Condition of tubes Water box for corrosion Zinc anodes										Zinc anodes
575	When using a drill in a centre lathe, how is this fixed to the tailstock? With a three-jaw chuck. With a quick locking chuck. To use a drill requires a special tailstock. With a Morse taper.										With a Morse taper.
576	At what temperatures would a pyrometer be used? In excess of 500 In excess of 400 In excess of 200 In excess of 100										In excess of 500
577	How is the cutting tool ground when thread cutting on the centre lathe? With both faces at the thread angles. With the cutting face at half the thread angle. The tool matching the thread shape exactly. With the cutting face at the thread angle.										The tool matching the thread shape exactly.
578	What top rake angle would be used for turning Aluminium in the centre lathe? 25 45 40 35										40
579	When could a magnetic chuck be used on a centre lathe? When using the lathe for drilling. Never. When facing. When setting up the work piece.										Never.
580	How would a large flat area be cut on a vertical milling machine? Using a `fly cutter`. Using repeated cuts along the work piece. Using the largest available end mill. Using repeated cuts across the work piece.										Using a `fly cutter`.
581	What is the name of the tool-mounting shaft on a horizontal milling machine? Cutting head. Tool post. Arbour. Cutting shaft.									Arbour.
582	What is the most important measurement to check when overhauling centrifugal pumps? Impeller diameter. Impeller/wear ring clearance. Neck bush/shaft clearance. Shaft axial clearance.									Impeller/wear ring clearance.
583	What is a normal front clearance angle when boring? 10 12 Any of these options depending on internal diameter. 8									Any of these options depending on internal diameter.
584	Which of these spanners is it preferable to use? Ring. Adjustable. Open Jaw. Box.									Ring.
585	How is the shaping machine head slide checked to be square to the table? Dial gauge against the head slide. Dial gauge attached to the tool post. Dial gauge against the table. Engineers square on the table.									Engineers square on the table.
586	Which of the following operations would be carried out with a horizontal milling machine? Cutting a blind, shaft keyway. Cutting a "T" slot. Cutting a spiral slot. Cutting straight gear teeth.									Cutting straight gear teeth.
587	Which of these is NOT a positive locking device? Locking wire. Spring washer. Castellated nut and split pin. Tab washer.									Spring washer.
588	When change gears are fitted to the back of the centre lathe headstock what are these for? Change the speed of the lead screw. Changing the chuck speed. Changing the tool feed rate. When thread cutting.									Change the speed of the lead screw.
589	Which machine tool would be used to finish machine crankpins? Vertical boring machine. Radial drilling machine. Vertical milling machine. Cylindrical grinding machine.									Cylindrical grinding machine.
590	What type of cutter would be used on a vertical milling machine? End mill. Toothed cutting wheel. Shanked single point tool. Profiled milling wheel.									End mill.
591	Why are there several tool positions on a centre lathe tool post? For use when thread cutting. To provide a fresh tool when one wears. To carry out more than one operation at a time. To accommodate different tools for different jobs.								To accommodate different tools for different jobs.
592	Which machine would be used to cut a blind keyway in a shaft? Vertical milling machine. Horizontal milling machine. Centre lathe. Shaping machine.								Vertical milling machine.
593	If cutting a mm thread on a non-metric centre lathe what gear wheel is required? 143 teeth. 117 teeth. 127 teeth. 254 teeth.								127 teeth.
594	What is meant by a 6" Centre Lathe? 6" diameter chuck. 6" swing for the work piece. 6" from bed to centre. 6" between centres.								6" swing for the work piece.
595	Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is given ? On the hydraulic pressure setting of the valves "PR". On the spring tension of spring "S". On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection "Y". On the distance the command rod "C" moves point "X".								On the distance the command rod "C" moves point "X".
596	What is the purpose of the clapper box on a shaping machine? To adjust tool position. To angle tool position. To relieve the tool cutting edge on the return stroke. To securely hold the tool.								To relieve the tool cutting edge on the return stroke.
597	Which machine tool would be used to cut straight gears? Horizontal milling machine. Vertical milling machine. Vertical boring machine. Centre lathe.								Horizontal milling machine.
598	On a centre lathe when must turning between centres be employed? When taking large roughing cuts. When turning a long taper with the tailstock offset. When a fine finish is required. When turning a long work piece.								When turning a long taper with the tailstock offset.
599	What is the most suitable tool for machining cast iron? Ceramic tip tool. Carbide tip tool. Carbon steel. High-speed steel.								Carbide tip tool.
600	This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two valve motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working ranges. This is called _____ control. split range. separated range. feedback. diverted.								split range.
601	If a fault occurs in this power supply system, the best and fastest way to locate this fault is by _____ calling the electrician. checking the fuses. checking the input voltage. checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.							checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.
602	The latest obtained system values are fed into the computer and compared with previous ones. The analysis obtained before has to be compared with the latest analysis. This is called _____ wear down and maintenance scheduling. wear down and breakdown prediction. material fatigue and maintenance scheduling. trend analysis and maintenance prediction.							trend analysis and maintenance prediction.
603	What is the disadvantage of using clamps to secure work piece on the shaping machine? Table too close to toolbox. Clamps may prevent tool from traversing entire work surface. Insufficient security. Restricts tool travel.							Clamps may prevent tool from traversing entire work surface.
604	By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic transmitter directly controlled ? By the restriction R. By slight fluctuation of supply pressure. By spring tension in S. By the stand of the valves V and B.							By the stand of the valves V and B.
605	A pressure reducing valve works according to the principle of balance of forces, in this case the force P2 acting on the membrane is in balance with the force of the _____ inlet pressure P1. the ball valve spring. the ball valve. the membrane spring.							the membrane spring.
606	On this commonly used electric pressure transmitter, how will you adjust the range ? With item No. 1. With item No. 2. With item No. 5. With item No. 7.							With item No. 7.
607	The valve positioner acts on the principle of the balance of forces. The tension of part _____ ( _____ ) is to be in balance with the force of the controller pressure which acts on part _____ ( _____ ). 9 (spring), 18 (membrane) 4 (relays), 12 (membrane) 9 (spring), 11 (supply valve) 12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)							9 (spring), 18 (membrane)
608	What approximate diameter is the work piece machined to before external thread cutting? It doesn`t matter as long as it`s within 0.2mm of the thread diameter. To the outside thread diameter. To slightly more than the outside thread diameter. Slightly less than the outside thread diameter.							Slightly less than the outside thread diameter.
609	The operating function of the valve on which this pneumatic valve motor is fitted will be _____ air to close (top connection). pressure to open (positive manometer reading). vacuum to open (negative manometer reading). air to open (bottom connection).							air to open (bottom connection).
610	The two valves shown at the right of the picture are _____ type valves. equi-percentage. flat shaped. stop flow. linear.							equi-percentage.
611	Why is stainless steel swarf particularly hazardous? It is very hot. It has extremely sharp edges. Breaks into chips that then fly off the work piece. It is a continuous piece and can become caught up in the workpiece						It has extremely sharp edges.
612	Which machine tool would be used to machine the bore on a multi cylinder block? Horizontal boring machine. Radial drilling machine. Vertical boring machine. Horizontal milling machine.						Vertical boring machine.
613	Which machine tool would be used to drill and tap the end of a shaft? Horizontal boring machine. Radial drilling machine. Horizontal milling machine. Centre lathe.						Centre lathe.
614	How do you adjust the zero setting on this commonly used electrical pressure transmitter? By item No. 1. By item No. 2. By item No. 5. By item No. 7.						By item No. 5.
615	Why does the output (instrument supply) pressure of a reducer fluctuate ? Because of the variation of the output capacity. Because of the characteristic of the spring. Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure. Because of the variation on the output pressure.						Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure.
616	The monitoring system that tests the plant for readings of the temperature, pressure etc. is called: the comparing unit. the scanning unit. the loop back system. the demand display unit.						the scanning unit.
617	What precaution may be necessary when using the faceplate with an irregular shaped work piece on a centre lathe? Use very low chuck speeds. Use hand feed. Use a balance weight on the faceplate. Disconnect the lead screw.						Use a balance weight on the faceplate.
618	Control valves in a controlled process can be either pneumatic, electrically or hydraulically operated. What kind of medium is used to control this valve ? When is it used ? Hydraulic, when an accurate valve response is required. Pneumatic, when a big force or torque is required. Pneumatic, when an accurate valve response is required. Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required.						Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required.
619	What would a `round nose` centre lathe tool generally be used for? Rough cutting. Thread cutting. Boring. Light finishing cut.						Light finishing cut.
620	How is the tool set up when thread cutting on the centre lathe? With the shank at right angles to the work piece. Using a thread gauge against the work piece. By eye and then adjusted before the final cut. With the shank against the face of the work piece.						Using a thread gauge against the work piece.
621	In automation, RTD & CV stands for: resistance temperature detector and control valve. None of these. return time delay. resistance temperature drop & control event.				resistance temperature detector and control valve.
622	When should an adjustable spanner be used? Only if the correct size spanner is unavailable. Only when dis-assembling components. Any time. Only on new nuts and bolts.				Only if the correct size spanner is unavailable.
623	When machining a work piece in the centre lathe, what is the purpose of centre drilling the end of the work piece? When turning between centres. For any of these. To centre the end for use with the tailstock centre. To centre the end for use with the headstock centre.				For any of these.
624	In an automated engine the center from which the ship`s engine room is controlled is called: the main engine nerve and control station (MENS). the engineering control room (ECR). the control plant station (CPS). the power plant station control station (PPCS).				the engineering control room (ECR).
625	Which is the most suitable machine for boring a single cylinder bore? Slotting machine. Horizontal milling machine. Centre lathe. Radial drill.				Centre lathe.
626	When using a parting tool on the centre lathe what is the most important consideration? Tool is the correct height. Using a slow speed. Using a slow feed rate. Tool is at right angles to the work piece				Tool is the correct height.
627	When would a collet chuck be used on a centre lathe? During drilling. When carrying out boring operations. When using a standard diameter material. When parting off.				When using a standard diameter material.
628	What are hold down strips when used with the shaping machine? For securing work piece in vice. For resting work piece on. For clamping work to table. For checking parallel operation.				For securing work piece in vice.
629	Which important maintenance activity should you carry out on pre-tensioning hydraulic tools to ensure their continuous safe use ? Replace the O-rings of the tool components regularly, replacing particularly after frequent use. Check that there are no metallic parts in the internals or in the oil. Clean the hydraulic filter. Renew the hydraulic oil after every use.				Replace the O-rings of the tool components regularly, replacing particularly after frequent use.
630	A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of _____ type output signals ? analog digital binary impulse				binary
631		What pressure is present in the crankcase of a freon compressor? The same as suction pressure. The same as discharge pressure. The same as atmospheric pressure. None of the mentioned alternatives.						The same as suction pressure.
632		Why is it so important to suck back as much freon liquid as possible from the evaporators, before You stop the compressor? To prevent low condensing pressure during start up. To prevent low suction pressure during start up. It is not important. To avoid liquid coming back to the compressor during start up.						To avoid liquid coming back to the compressor during start up.
633		To get the best possible efficiency from evaporators, the superheat should be regulated to: 5 - 10 Degr. C. 25-30 Degr. C. 0 - 1 Degr. C. 40 - 50 Degr.C.						5 - 10 Degr. C.
634		At which of the pressures shown should the high discharge pressure trip operate on a freon compressor? + 10 bar + 18.5 bar + 5.0 bar + 25 bar						+ 18.5 bar
635		If the heat transfer capacity in a heat exchanger is dropping, the following action should be taken: Increase the flowrate Clean the heat transfer surface Increase pressure Decrease the flowrate						Clean the heat transfer surface
636		Insufficient cooling water circulation in a refrigeration condenser will have the following effect on the compressor: High suction pressure Low suction pressure High delivery pressure Low delivery pressure						High delivery pressure
637		A boiler plant has been shut down for some time.Prior to starting the boiler, which of the following subjects is the `most important` control check? That the burner unit to be thoroughly checked prior to start. That all automatic functions are to be checked prior starting. That fuel oil supply system is running on diesel oil. That the combustion chamber of the boiler is checked being empty for oil and that the pre ventilation function prior to ignition is functioning.						That the combustion chamber of the boiler is checked being empty for oil and that the pre ventilation function prior to ignition is functioning.
638		What is the best operating conditions for the separator? The separator works under all conditions. High temperature of the liquid. High flowrate. Constant flow, clean probes and temperature below 60 Degr.C.						Constant flow, clean probes and temperature below 60 Degr.C.
639		What to do if Your ship receive HFO with high density , from the last bunkering, to obtain the best purifying result? According to the nomograms You select a gravity disc with larger hole diameter. You start the purifier with a smaller disc. This make no difference for the result. Increase the speed of the purifier (RPM).						According to the nomograms You select a gravity disc with larger hole diameter.
640		Why is it important that the combustion chamber of a boiler is properly ventilated prior to ignition? To reduce the surface temperature of the boiler furnace and water tubes. To remove loose scale in the water tube walls. To avoid an explosion in case of oil have been leaking into the boiler furnace. To have sufficient air for proper combustion.						To avoid an explosion in case of oil have been leaking into the boiler furnace.
641		Why are crankcase heaters fitted to freon compressors? None of the mentioned alternatives. To prevent freon condensing when the compressor is stopped. To stop oil from thickening. To boil off any water.				To prevent freon condensing when the compressor is stopped.
642		What will You do if the liquid start raising in the Surge Drum? (Direct cooling system) It will never happen. Immediately reduce on the suction valve, and watch the Open more on the suction valve gauge. Open more on the suction valve. Stop the compressor.				Immediately reduce on the suction valve, and watch the Open more on the suction valve gauge.
643		If water contamination occurs in the crankcase oil of an auxiliary engine the oil viscosity will: Stay at the same. Nothing happens. Increase. Decrease.				Increase.
644		Some 4-stroke engines are fitted with a rotorcap on the cylinder head valves. For what reason? Distribute the exhaust gas or the air inlet better to improve combustion. To prevent the valve spindle to stick Improve the scaling surface function, increase the service time of the exhaust valve in the engine. Rotate the inlet valve during operation.				Improve the scaling surface function, increase the service time of the exhaust valve in the engine.
645		To evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger the following measurements should be recorded: Pressure drop In and outlet temperatures for both media In and outlet temperatures, and flow rates for both media In and outlet temperatures on one media				In and outlet temperatures, and flow rates for both media
646		During standstill liquid may condense in the crankcase or oil separator. Why is it important to heat up the oil before start? Compressor oil regulating system will operate better. The compressor will run better. It should never be done. To avoid the compressor-oil to disappear from the crankcase during starting.				To avoid the compressor-oil to disappear from the crankcase during starting.
647		Which of the below statements characterizes the most significant differences between a water-tube boiler and a fire-tube boiler during operation? The firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam pressure. The watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water, when the oilburner is still in action. The firetube boiler does not need any non-return valves in the feedwater line circuit. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and contains less water. They suffer from major damages when run dry during operation.				Water-tube boilers are more efficient and contains less water. They suffer from major damages when run dry during operation.
648		How do You test the probes for the 15 PPM monitor ? It is only necessary to clean them. They have to be changed, testing is not possible. By immersing them in buckets with oil. By immersing them in buckets with oil and water.				By immersing them in buckets with oil and water.
649		You have a brine-system onboard with steam heating for defrosting. Which liquid will You circulate first through the heater to avoid damage on the heater? Raise the temperature on the brine. Open for the steam first to avoid freezing of condensate inside the heater. Open carefully for the brine. Both at the same time.				Open for the steam first to avoid freezing of condensate inside the heater.
650		If the refrigeration system contains air, where would you vent the air? From the compressor. From the receivers bottom. From the condenser. From the evaporator.				From the condenser.
651		Which cleaning agents for machinery space are important to use due to the oily water separators function? No kind of chemicals. A non-emulsifying agent with self splitting emulsifiers. Any kind of chemicals. An emulsification agent.	A non-emulsifying agent with self splitting emulsifiers.
652		The safety valve on a steam boiler shall: Be adjusted by the crew when necessary. Block the spring and the valve so no steam is escaping in the funnel, if the spring on the valve is not working properly. Open, when pressure in the boiler is in excess of normal working pressure. Be used to regulate the the steam pressure.	Open, when pressure in the boiler is in excess of normal working pressure.
653		What do you think would be the most likely cause of high discharge pressure from a freon compressor? Blocked condenser. Too little gas in the system. Broken discharge valve plate. Broken suction valve plate.	Blocked condenser.
654		What do you think would be the most likely cause of too low suction pressure in a freon compressor? Too little gas in the system. Blocked condenser tubes. Broken suction valve plate. Blocked condenser.	Too little gas in the system.
655		From the pressure gauges shown can you tell what is the oil pressure in a freon compressor? 2.0 bar 6.5 bar 5.5 bar 8,5 bar	2.0 bar
656		On a two stage compressor you will find pistons with different diameters (one is bigger than the other).Which one of the following statements is correct ? A big piston will give less oil content in the air. The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston. The biggest diameter piston is the stage two piston. A big piston will deliver dryer air into stage one.	The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston.
657		The cargo hold air-circulating system normally permits 2 speeds ( 45 and 90) air-changes on the cargo hold air fans. Which air-speed will You use when You carry banana cargo? 90 air-changes. Not important. 45 air-changes. The air should not be changed.	90 air-changes.
658		If the reeferplant obtain air in the system , where do You want to vent the air out? From the condenser. From the evaporator. From the compressor. From the receivers bottom.	From the condenser.
659		The thermoexpansion-valve is a part of the refrigeration system. What is the thermo-expansion-valve doing? Regulating the suction pressure. Regulating the cargo hold temperature. Regulating cooling water temperature. Regulating freon liquid flow to the evaporator.	Regulating freon liquid flow to the evaporator.
660		Which of the pressures is the most satisfactory at the suction of an air conditioning freon compressor? 0.5 bar 7.0 bar 4.5 bar 2.0 bar	4.5 bar
661		At which of the pressures shown should the low suction pressure trip operate on a freon compressor? + 5.0 bar + 10 bar +2 bar - 0.5 bar	+2 bar
662		At which of the pressures shown should the low oil pressure trip operate on a freon compressor? - 0.5 bar + 5.0 bar + 10 bar + 1.0 bar	+ 1.0 bar
663		Correct start up procedure of an oil fired boiler is that the air fan is running for some time, before oil is supplied and ignition occurs. What is the reason for this? To allow the funnel and air system to cool down by the air before heating is supplied. For safety reasons, to ensure that all explosive atmosphere inside the boiler is removed. To ensure enough air to ignite the fuel. To allow the heavy fan to reach normal operation speed before load is put to the boiler.	For safety reasons, to ensure that all explosive atmosphere inside the boiler is removed.
664		After closing the drain during the blowing procedure for a glass water gauge, the water cock is opened and the water flows to the top of the glass. Then the steam cock is opened and the water flows down and out of the glass; Which of the following statements are correct? The water level in the boiler is below the water cock connection of the boiler. It is unsafe to put feed water into the boiler. The water level is above the steam cock connection of the boiler. There is a danger of priming the boiler if any additional feed is put into it. The water level is normal, but it requires time for the gauge glass to stabilise. It is safe to put feed water into the boiler. The water level is between the water cock connection of the boiler, and the bottom of the gauge glass. It is safe to put feed water into the boiler.	The water level is between the water cock connection of the boiler, and the bottom of the gauge glass. It is safe to put feed water into the boiler.
665		What is the main purpose of bottom-blowing a boiler? To adjust steam pressure when the burner capacity is excessive. To check that we do not have any leak of smoke and gases in the combustion camber. To get rid of sludge in the water chamber. To control that water is present in the water chamber, when the boiler is in active operation.	To get rid of sludge in the water chamber.
666		You are going to start firing a boiler. Which of the below mentioned alternatives do you consider as most important? Activating the main safety valves. Bottom-blowing the boiler to be absolutely convinced that water is present in the boiler. A thorough ventilation of the combustion chamber before the ignition takes place. Opening the main steam pressure outlet valve.	A thorough ventilation of the combustion chamber before the ignition takes place.
667		What could be the reason if the lub oil viscosity decrease? Diesel oil leakage to the lub oil system. Heavy fuel oil leakage to the lub oil system. Low lub oil temperature. Wrong lub oil pressure.	Diesel oil leakage to the lub oil system.
668		Most boiler design incorporate external "downcomers". For what purpose are those "downcomers" primarly incorporated? Provide extra support for furnace tubes. Directional control of steam bubbles. To increase heating surface area. Ensure adequate circulation in all conditions of steaming.	Ensure adequate circulation in all conditions of steaming.
669		The thermo-expansion-valve is a part of the refrigeration system. What is the thermoexpansion valve doing? Regulating the suction pressure. Regulating the cargo hold temperature. Regulating the cooling-water temperature. Regulating freon liquid flow to the evaporator.	Regulating freon liquid flow to the evaporator.
670		After obtaining permission from the duty Deck Officer, under what conditions would the process of sootblowing the boiler tubes be most beneficial? When the boiler is firing on low rate. When the boiler is firing on medium rate. When the boiler is firing on high rate. When the boiler is standing idle.	When the boiler is firing on high rate.
671		The boiler have been shut down completely for inspection and repair. You have finished work and are going to start firing the boiler. What is the correct procedure for heating a boiler from cold? Start the firing on minimum rate and continuously fire until boiler is up to pressure. Start the firing on maximum rate and raise the pressure in as short a period as possible, to save energy. Start the firing on minimum rate and alternate with maximum rate continuously firing until the boiler is up to pressure. Start with intermittent firing, using small firing periods and long intervals gradually building up to longer firing periods and shorter intervals.	Start with intermittent firing, using small firing periods and long intervals gradually building up to longer firing periods and shorter intervals.
672		Classification societies require that when initially fitted to a boiler, safety valves must be subjected to a test of accumulation of pressure. Is this to: Ensure the maximum firing rate can keep the pressure above normal working pressure. Ensure the valves are of the correct discharge capacity for the boiler. See how high the boiler pressure will go before the safety valve operates. See at what pressure the safety valve will reset.	Ensure the valves are of the correct discharge capacity for the boiler.
673		Feed check valves for main and auxilliary purposes are normally of the double shut off type, as shown in the diagram. What is the main function of the non-return valve? To allow overhaul of the screw down valve when the non-return valve is shut and the boiler is steaming. To increase the workload for staff when overhauling the boiler. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out by the feed line, if a feed line fracture or a joint in the line blows.	To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out by the feed line, if a feed line fracture or a joint in the line blows.
674		After complete shut down of the steam plant, the boiler have been heated in accordance to correct starting up procedure, and is now firing at working pressure. You are going to open the main steam valve to the system. What will be the correct procedure for this operation? Open steam valve very slowly, considering system expansion. Open as fast as possible to get rid of water assembly in the piping system. Don`t open the main valve before you have top pressure on the boiler. Open as fast as possible to heat the piping system.	Open steam valve very slowly, considering system expansion.
675		When an air compressor is going to be started it is important that the compressor is started with the "blow off" valves open. Why? To ensure that we do not have any water assembly in the cylinders when the compressor start. To ensure that the electric motor will not have a too low torque during start. To ensure that the compressor does not have any back pressure due to a leak suction valve in stage one. To be sure that all pressure valves in the HP line to the starting bottle are open.	To ensure that we do not have any water assembly in the cylinders when the compressor start.
676		How do You want to operate the purifier to obtain the best separation result? By high flow and low temperature. By high flow and high temperature. Flow and temperature has no influence of the result. Separation with correct temperature and low flow rate.	Separation with correct temperature and low flow rate.
677		What separating temperature do You mean is best for lub. oil.? About 50 Centigrades. 85 - 90 Centigrades. 60 - 80 Centigrades. 40 - 60 Centigrades.	85 - 90 Centigrades.
678		Which items are important to get an optimal separation? Correct flow, pressure and temperature. ( Viscosity) Max flow and min. pressure. Low temperature and flow. Max flow and high temperature.	Correct flow, pressure and temperature. ( Viscosity)
679		What is the separators intention? To keep constant level in the service-tank To remove water. To remove solids, water and sludge. To remove water and sludge.	To remove solids, water and sludge.
680		What is the meaning of the term Clarification? Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and at the same time, removing of solids. Separation in a single system. Separation of water.	Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid.
681		During execution of a standard UMS-check, the Engineer on Duty is experiencing a "low water level" alarm in a cooling water expansion tank. What will be the appropriate immediate action? Correct water level is obtained by refilling the cooling system, and the entire system is checked for leakages The set point for the water level in the expansion tank is temporarily readjusted for later action. The alarm function is blocked for later action The alarm function is blocked and the engineroom is changed to manual mode.	Correct water level is obtained by refilling the cooling system, and the entire system is checked for leakages
682		What long term effect will excessively high temperature have on lubricating oil quality? Cause oxidation which increase viscosity. Cause oxidation which reduce viscosity. Evaporates the oil giving high consumption. The oil flashpoint will be changed.	Cause oxidation which increase viscosity.
683		Which would be the most suitable place to obtain an oil sample for analysis? From the oil cooler drain. From the lub. oil pump suction line. From the system pipeline. From the filter drain.	From the system pipeline.
684		For a large decrease in the specific gravity of the oil, the gravity disc hole diameter should be: Kept the same. Hole diameter is of no importance. Increased. Reduced.	Increased.
685		What is the meaning of the term purification? Operation as the 2.nd separator in a serial system. Cleaning a liquid. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and at the same time removing of solids. Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid.	Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and at the same time removing of solids.
686		Why is it important to keep the condensate PH- value in correct range? To neutralize the acids occurring in the condensate system. To prevent oxygen corrosions. To prevent sludge depositing in the water. It is not important.	To neutralize the acids occurring in the condensate system.
687		What is meant by a two stage compressor ? Air from stage one goes through discharge valves in stage one and through suction valves into stage two. In stage two it will be compressed to high pressure air. The two stage air compressor takes some air from the surroundings to stage one and compress and some air from the surroundings to stage two and compress. The compressed air goes back from stage two and into stage one to get extra pressure before it goes into the starting air bottles. Two stage air compressors have the capability to compress air in stage one and dry the air in stage two.	Air from stage one goes through discharge valves in stage one and through suction valves into stage two. In stage two it will be compressed to high pressure air.
688		During standstill liquid may condense in the crankcase or oil seperator. Why is it important to heat up the oil before start? The compressor will run better. Compressor oil regulating system will operate better. It should never be done. To avoid the compressor-oil to disapper from the crankcase during starting.	To avoid the compressor-oil to disapper from the crankcase during starting.
689		On a two stage compressor you will find pistons with different diameters (one is bigger than the other).Which one of the following statements is correct ? A big piston will give less oil content in the air. The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston. The biggest diameter piston is the stage two piston. A big piston will deliver dryer air into stage one.	The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston.
690		If the temperature increase, what will happen with the interface in the bowl? Increase of the purification capasity. Will have no effect on interface. Interface towards center. Interface outwards center.	Interface towards center.
691		If the temperature decrease, what will happen with the interface in the bowl ? Will have no effect on interface. Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc. Interface towards center Decreasing of capacity.	Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc.
692		The most important preparation prior to Arrival to / Departure from ports is: Control the frequence Control the power reserve Start an additional auxiliary engine Control the fuel injection valve pressure setting	Start an additional auxiliary engine
693		What will You do if the purifier starts to vibrate, or has heavy vibrations? Try to increase the flow. Try to decrease flow. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the bowl for heavy side, deposits, bearings, housing, and the spindle for damage. Check the vibration alarm.	Stop the purifier immediately. Check the bowl for heavy side, deposits, bearings, housing, and the spindle for damage.
694		Where is the best position of the oil/water interface in this figures? Position A Position B Position C None of the shown positions.	Position A
695		What will happen with the interface in the bowl, if the flow is too high? Broken water seal. The separation of the oil is good. The separation of the oil is bad. Will have no effect on interface.	Broken water seal.
696		What differential pressure would you expect to find across an engine lub.oil filter? Zero 1.2 Bar 3.0 Bar 0.2 Bar	0.2 Bar
697		When an air compressor is going to be started it is important that the compressor is started with the "blow off" valves open. Why? To be sure that all pressure valves in the HP line to the starting bottle are open. To ensure that we do not have any water assembly in the cylinders when the compressor start. To ensure that the electric motor will not have a too low torque during start. To ensure that the compressor does not have any back pressure due to leak suction valve in stage one.	To ensure that we do not have any water assembly in the cylinders when the compressor start.
698		What will you do if the liquid start raising in the Surge Drum? (Direct cooling / refrigeration system). Open more on the suction valve. Stop the compressor. It will never happen. Immediately reduce on the suction valve, and watch the gauge.	Immediately reduce on the suction valve, and watch the gauge.
699		The most important preparation prior to Arrival to / Departure from ports is: Start an additional auxiliary engine Control the fuel injection valve pressure setting Control the frequency Control the power reserve	Start an additional auxiliary engine
700		Which type of pump is best suited to use with an oily water separator? Reciprocating positive displacement. Centrifugal. Piston pump. Rotary positive displacement (mono type).	Rotary positive displacement (mono type).
701		If the high PPM alarm is actuated on an automatic O.W.S. What should happen? Overboard discharge continues. The sludge pump stopped. Overboard discharge is stopped. The oil outlet valve opens.	Overboard discharge is stopped.
702		If the temperature decrease, what will happen with the interface in the bowl? Interface towards center. Decreasing of capacity. Will have no effect on the interface. Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc.	Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc.
703		What will happen with the interface in the bowl, if the flow is too high? Will have no effect on the interface. Broken water seal. The separation of the oil is good. The separation of the oil is bad.	Broken water seal.
704		Where is the best position of the oil/water interface in these figures? Position A. Position B. Position C. None of the shown positions.	Position A.
705		For a large increase in the specific gravity of the oil, the gravity disc hole diameter should be: Hole diameter is of no importance. Reduced. Increased. Kept the same.	Reduced.
706		What could be the reason if the lub oil viscosity increase? The lub oil viscosity will not increase. Water-leakage to the lub oil system. High lub oil temperature. Heavy fuel oil leakage to the lub oil system.	Heavy fuel oil leakage to the lub oil system.
707		What initial simple recommendation can we give to reduce oxygen in the boiler water? Increase the "Blow down". Lower the feed water temperature. Increase the boiler pressure. Raise the feed water temperature.	Raise the feed water temperature.
708		The main reason for the use of cylinder oil is to: Lubricate the piston rings. Cool the piston and liner. To improve combustion efficiency. To protect the piston and liner.	Lubricate the piston rings.
709		What is an effective means of measuring total dissolved solids in boiler water? Conductivity test. Alkalinity test. Chloride test. Not possible to test solids in boiler water.	Conductivity test.
710		What is meant by a two stage compressor ? Air from stage one goes through discharge valves in stage one and through suction valves into stage two. In stage two it will be compressed to high pressure air. The two stage air compressor take some air from the surraundings to stage one and compress and some air from the surraundings to stage two and compress. The compressed air goes back from stage two and into stage one to get extra pressure before it goes into the starting air bottles. Two stage air compressors have the capabillity to compress air in stage one and dry the air in stage two.	Air from stage one goes through discharge valves in stage one and through suction valves into stage two. In stage two it will be compressed to high pressure air.
711		In a two stage compressor you will find pistons with different diameters (one is bigger than the other).Which one of the following statements is correct ? A big piston will give less oil content in the air. The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston. The biggest diameter piston is the stage two piston. A big piston will deliver dryer air into stage one.	The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston.
712		What is the reason too rising cooling water temperature at outlet of individual cylinders? Cooling water spaces insufficiently vented. Overload of the engine. Compression pressure too low. Fuel pressure of fuel booster pump too high.	Cooling water spaces insufficiently vented.
713		After obtaining permission from the duty Deck Officer, under what conditions would the process of sootblowing the boiler tubes be most beneficial? When the boiler is firing on high rate. When the boiler is standing idle. When the boiler is firing on low rate. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.	When the boiler is firing on high rate.
714		What is the purpose of the corrugations on the plates? To increase turbulence in the liquids. Stiffening of the thin metal sheet. All of these. To increase the surface area.	All of these.
715		Does liquid turbulence improve the efficiency of a Plate Heat Exchanger? Yes. No. Makes no difference. Turbulence is not possible in a Plate Heat Exchanger?	Yes.
716		Why is the maximum pressure in a Plate Heat Exchanger usually limited to about 10 bar? All the other alternatives. Pump capasity. Difficult to seal plates above this pressure. Possibility of rupturing the plates.	Difficult to seal plates above this pressure.
717		Which of the following is true when comparing Plate Type with Shell and Tube Type Heat Exchangers? Physically smaller for the same capacity. Better sealing between liquids in Shell and Tube. All of these. The capacity can easily be changed.	All of these.
718		To get the best possible efficiency from refrigerator evaporators, the superheat should be regulated to? 25 - 30 Degr. C. 0 - 1 Degr. C. 40 - 50 Degr. C. 5 - 10 Degr. C.	5 - 10 Degr. C.
719		A water content greater than 2 % is detected in a lub oil system. What is the best action to do? Segregate the oil in a separate tank for continuous purifying. It is no danger before the water level reach 6-8%. Continuous purifying the system with the lub oil pumps running. Boil out the water by increasing the temperature.	Segregate the oil in a separate tank for continuous purifying.
720		Water hammer is a shortlasting pressure peak travelling along the pipe. How can it be avoided in a cooling water system? Operate valves quickly Operate valves gradually Start pump with closed valves Start the system with open valves and empty pipes	Operate valves gradually
721		Between the sea water and fresh water systems there are blanked off connecting pipes. These connections can be used in cases of: Sea water system failure Insufficient sea water pressure Extremely cold sea water Fresh water system failure	Fresh water system failure
722		What is a system employing a single common freshwater cooler (cooled by means of seawater) called? Central cooling system Low temperature freshwater system Common cooling system High temperature freshwater system	Central cooling system
723		A sudden or gradual decrease in the pH-value, or an increase of the sulfate content, in the cooling water may indicate: Leakages from seawater coolers High concentration of corrosion inhibitors Leakages from L.O. coolers. Exhaust leakage	Exhaust leakage
724		A sudden or gradual increase of the chloride content in the freshwater cooling indicates: Leakages from oil coolers Leakages from seawater coolers Low concentration of corrosion inhibitors Exhaust leakage	Leakages from seawater coolers
725		In a heat exchanger where seawater is used to cool fresh water, the seawater pressure should be maintained lower than the freshwater pressure to: Eliminate scaling problems on seawater side Reduce erosion Minimize the load on the seawater pump Prevent contamination if leaks are developed	Prevent contamination if leaks are developed
726		When an evaporator is operated in extremely cold water you may need to throttle the seawater supply to: Increase the evaporator distilling rate Maintain the specified boiling temperature Prevent the evaporator from cold shocking Avoid flooding the evaporator shell	Maintain the specified boiling temperature
727		The condenser in an evaporator is cooled by: Air Brine Seawater Distillate	Seawater
728		The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of any particular substance 1 Latent heat Heat transfer coefficient Adiabatic heat Specific heat	Specific heat
729		What is the main purpose of a heat exchanger in the cooling water system? Reduce water turbulence Transfer heat from one fluid to another Maintain a steady pressure in the system Reduce engine room temperature	Transfer heat from one fluid to another
730		Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger could be the result of: Waterside fouling Poor heat transfer Excessive cooling water velocity High temperature	Excessive cooling water velocity
731		Is it necessary to cool the water samples from the cooling system, before testing ? Yes, must be cooled to 50 No, must be heated to about 95 Yes, must be cooled to 25 No.	Yes, must be cooled to 25
732		In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating valve is directly controlled by the: Amount of refrigerant in the system Temperature of the refrigerant after expansion Compressor discharge pressure Temperature in the refrigerated room.	Compressor discharge pressure
733		To evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger the following measurements should be recorded: In and outlet temperatures for both media In and outlet temperatures, and flow rates for both media In and outlet temperatures on one media Pressure drop	In and outlet temperatures, and flow rates for both media
734		Chlorine is used in the cooling water system to: Reduce sedimentation Prevent biological growth Stop corrosion Increase the heat transfer capacity	Prevent biological growth
735		If the heat transfer capacity in a heat exchanger is dropping, the following action should be taken: Increase pressure Decrease the flowrate Increase the flowrate Clean the heat transfer surface	Clean the heat transfer surface
736		Insufficient cooling water circulation in a refrigeration condenser will have the following effect on the compressor: Low suction pressure High delivery pressure Low delivery pressure High suction pressure	High delivery pressure
737		When a low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the: Scale formation decreases Heat level rises Heat level drops Capacity increases	Heat level rises
738		Which of the following pumps will be damaged if the discharge valve is closed before the motor is stopped? Centrifugal pump Turbine pump Gear pump Propeller pump	Gear pump
739		Cooling water expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a constant head on the system and: Provide an air cushion Allow for increase in water volume Reduce temperature Reduce water turbulence	Allow for increase in water volume
740		Which type of pump is best suited to use with an oily water separator? Centrifugal. Piston pump. Rotary positive displacement (mono type). Reciprocating positive displacement.	Rotary positive displacement (mono type).
741		Reduced capacity accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump results from the action of vapor pockets in the fluid being pumped caused by: Cavitation Water hammer Fluid friction Steam knock		Cavitation
742		Some 4-stroke engines are fitted with a rotorcap on the cylinder head valves. For what reason? Distribute the exhaust gas or the air inlet better to improve combustion To prevent the valve spindle to stick. Improve the scaling surface function, increase the service time of the exhaust valve in the engine Rotate the inlet valve during operation.		Improve the scaling surface function, increase the service time of the exhaust valve in the engine
743		An expansion process along a turbine venturi is ofthen recognized as if no heat transfer out of the system is occuring What is the correct term for this? Endothermic Adiabatic. Isochorie. Isobar.		Adiabatic.
744		Most boiler design incorporate external "downcomers". For what purpose are those "downcomers" primarely incorporated? Ensure adequate circulation in all conditions of steaming. Provide extra support for furnace tubes. Directional control of steam bubbles. To increase heating surface area.		Ensure adequate circulation in all conditions of steaming.
745		For what purpose is a "de-aerator" in a boiler feed water system used? Removal of excess oxygen in the feed water. Removal of excess hydrogen in the feed water. Removal of excess nitrogen in the feed water. Removal of excess sulphur in the feed water.		Removal of excess oxygen in the feed water.
746		Quality of the feed water in a steam plant changes during operation. Caused by this, the water is regularly tested. Which of the below statements describes the chemical mechanisms normally occuring? Generation of sulphur acid causes the water quality to drift towards sweet and rise the pH - number. All of the mentioned alternatives. Water is becoming sligthly less conductive and does not transfer heat. Generation of carbonic acid causes the water quality to drift towards sour and lower the pH - number.		Generation of carbonic acid causes the water quality to drift towards sour and lower the pH - number.
747		You are going to start firing a boiler. Which of the below mentioned alternatives do you consider as most important? Activating the main safety valves. Bottom-blowing the boiler to be absolutely convinced that water is present in the boiler. A thorough ventilation of the combustion chamber before the ignition takes place. Opening the main steam pressure outlet valve.		A thorough ventilation of the combustion chamber before the ignition takes place.
748		Which main unit determines the increasing/decreasing of the fuel quantity, i.e. controls "the effective delivery stroke" (Bosch type pump)? The fuel injector The booster pump The governor The fuel master control valve		The governor
749		Which feedwater condition would you prefer? pH value 7.5 Slightly salt. Rich on H2 C5 OH Rich on oxygen.		pH value 7.5
750		What is the main purpose of bottom-blowing a boiler? To adjust steam pressure when the burner capacity is excessive. To check that we do not have any leak of smoke and gases in the combustion camber. To get rid of sludge in the water chamber. To control that water is present in the water chamber, when the boiler is in active operation.		To get rid of sludge in the water chamber.
751		The safety valve on a steam boiler shall: Open, when pressure in the boiler is in excess of normal working pressure. Be used to regulate the the steam pressure. Be adjusted by the crew when necessary. Block the spring and the valve so no steam is escaping in the funnel, if the spring on the valve is not working properly.		Open, when pressure in the boiler is in excess of normal working pressure.
752		Tank (4) in the outlet piping is designed to: Prevent air accumulation in the cooling water system Maintain a constant head in the system Provide an air cushion Take up the difference in water volume at changes of temperature		Prevent air accumulation in the cooling water system
753		Some 4-stroke engines are equipped with cooled fuel valves. Why is it so important to keep the coolant`s temperature correct? To avoid overheating the fuel nozzle. For cooling and to maintain correct viscosity on the fuel when injected For cooling only For preheating only		For cooling and to maintain correct viscosity on the fuel when injected
754		Why is it necessary to have routine testing of the cooling water? To trace leakage in the cooling water system. t is not necessary. To detect the presence of contaminants in the water that may be injurious to the cooling system. To ensure that the proper residuals of treatment chemicals, as specified, are maintained all time.		To ensure that the proper residuals of treatment chemicals, as specified, are maintained all time.
755		At what pH-value should the engine cooling water be maintained? Between 7 and 9. Between 5 and 7. Between 9 and 11. Below 5.		Between 7 and 9.
756		Why are soluble oils not usually used as cooling water treatments these days? Expensive. Not easily available any more. Risk of deposits on heat transmitting surfaces. Risk of pollution.		Risk of deposits on heat transmitting surfaces.
757		Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the system is connected to a fresh water generator? It reacts with metals used in the fresh water generator. It increases the chloride level. Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments are not allowed in any cooling water system. It could poison the fresh water if leakage occurs.		It could poison the fresh water if leakage occurs.
758		For a Nitrate based cooling water treatment system, what would you consider to be the normal operating limits? 2000-3000 PPM Nitrate. 3000-5000 PPM Nitrate. 1000-2000 PPM Nitrate. 0-1000 PPM Nitrate.		1000-2000 PPM Nitrate.
759		The Chloride level in a cooling water system should be: It does not matter. In the range 3000-5000 RPM. As low as possible. As high as possible.		As low as possible.
760		Which of the following functions are chemical treatments for cooling water system designed to do? None of the functions above. Minimize corrosion, prevent deposits and scaling, and control of biological growth. Increase design heat transfer coefficients. Decrease the amount of cooling water required.		Minimize corrosion, prevent deposits and scaling, and control of biological growth.
761		Zinc will corrode to protect which of the following metals? Cast steel, Iron, Brass & Bronze. Aluminum. Magnesium. Zinc gives no protection.		Cast steel, Iron, Brass & Bronze.
762		How often should normal testing of the cooling water be done? Once a week. Every day. Every 2.nd week. Once a month.		Once a week.
763		What is the correct way to obtain a reduced capacity with a centrifugal pump? Throttling of delivery valve Throttling of suction valve Adjust the relief valve Open the priming line		Throttling of delivery valve
764		Correct start up procedure of an oil fired boiler is that the air fan is running for some time, before oil is supplied and ignition occurs. What is the reason for this? To allow the heavy fan to reach normal operation speed before load is put to the boiler. To allow the funnel and air system to cool down by the air before heating is supplied. For safety reasons, to ensure that all explosive atmosphere inside the boiler is removed. To ensure enough air to ignite the fuel.		For safety reasons, to ensure that all explosive atmosphere inside the boiler is removed.
765		What is an effective means of measuring total dissolved solids in boiler water? Not possible to test solids in boiler water. Conductivity test. Alkalinity test. Chloride test.		Conductivity test.
766		In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would You consider to be the maximum allowable chloride level? 1000 PPM. 50 PPM. 300 PPM. 600 PPM.		300 PPM.
767		At what interval should boiler water testing usually take place? Every fortnight. Every eight hours. Every day. Every week.		Every day.
768		What is the purpose of an observation tank in a boiler feed system? To check condensate returns for oil. For adding chemicals into the boiler water. To monitor the water colour. To monitor chloride level.		To check condensate returns for oil.
769		If oil is found in the boiler water, what action would You take other than isolating the leak? Dose with coagulent and blow down the boiler. Blow down the boiler. Do nothing. Dose with coagulent.		Dose with coagulent and blow down the boiler.
770		For a low pressure boiler, after testing the water cloride level, it is found to be 500 PPM, what action would You take? Blow down boiler and check condenser for leakage. Increase dosage. Do nothing. Decrease dosage.		Blow down boiler and check condenser for leakage.
771		For a low pressure boiler, after testing the water, You found the Chloride level to be 50 PPM, what action would You take? Reduce dosage. Do nothing. Increase dosage. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage.		Do nothing.
772		What will You do if the PH-value in the boiler water is over 11? Decrease the dosage of chemicals. Blow the boiler and renew water until the PH-value is normal again. Nothing. Increase the dosage of chemicals.		Blow the boiler and renew water until the PH-value is normal again.
773		What will You do if the PH-value in the boiler water is under 7? Increase the dosage of chemicals, and take new test of the water. Blow the boiler and renew some water. Nothing. Decrease the dosage of chemicals, and take new test of the water.		Increase the dosage of chemicals, and take new test of the water.
774		What type of heat exchanger is shown? Evaporative Bundle and stack Plate Shell and tube		Plate
775		What initial simple recommendation can we give to reduce oxygen in the boiler water? Increase the boiler pressure. Raise the feed water temperature. Increase the "Blow down". Lower the feed water temperature.		Raise the feed water temperature.
776		In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, if after testing the water, You found the P. alkalinity to be 50 PPM CaCO3, what action would You take? Increase dosage. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage. Do nothing. Reduce dosage.		Increase dosage.
777		Why is it important to keep the condense PH- value in correct range? To neutralize the acids occurring in the condensate system. To prevent oxygen corrosions. To prevent sludge depositing in the water. It is not important.		To neutralize the acids occurring in the condensate system.
778		After complete shut down of the steam plant, the boiler have been heated in accordance to correct starting up procedure, and is now firing at working pressure. You are going to open the main steam valve to the system. What will be the correct procedure for this operation? Open steam valve very slowly, considering system expansion. Open as fast as possible to get rid of water assembly in the piping system. Don`t open the main valve before you have top pressure on the boiler. Open as fast as possible to heat the piping system.		Open steam valve very slowly, considering system expansion.
779		In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic system, what does the following symbol indicate? Check valve. Pressure relief valve. Throttle valve. Directional control valve.		Pressure relief valve.
780		In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic system, what does the following symbol indicate? Throttle valve. Pressure relief valve. Check valve. Directional control valve.		Directional control valve.
781		Which PPM is allowed for discharging Bilge Water overboard? 50 PPM 0 PPM 15 PPM 100 PPM		15 PPM
782		Which separator operation conditions should be avoided? Dry running of the pump, high temperature of the contents and various flowrate. The separator works under all conditions. Low temperature. Low flow.		Dry running of the pump, high temperature of the contents and various flowrate.
783		Which cleaning agents for machinery space are important to use due to the oily water separators function? A non-emulsifying agent with self splitting emulsifiers. Any kind of chemicals. An emulsification agent. No kind of chemicals.		A non-emulsifying agent with self splitting emulsifiers.
784		What is the best operating conditions for the separator? High flowrate. Constant flow, clean probes and temperature below 60 Degr.C. The separator works under all conditions. High temperature of the liquid.		Constant flow, clean probes and temperature below 60 Degr.C.
785		How do You test the probes for the 15 PPM monitor ? By immersing them in buckets with oil and water. It is only necessary to clean them. They have to be changed, testing is not possible. By immersing them in buckets with oil.		By immersing them in buckets with oil and water.
786		What is the correct PH-value for the Boiler Water? Below 4,5 9 - 11. 8,3 - 9. 4,5 - 6.		8,3 - 9.
787		Generally vertical mounted pumps are used in ship engine rooms. Is it because of: It makes maintenance easier. They require less bearings than horizontal pumps. Floor space is usually more valuable than height. They give better performance than horizontal pumps.		Floor space is usually more valuable than height.
788		Zinc anodes are used on the seawater side of heat exchangers to: Reduce salinity Prevent scaling Prevent accumulation of marine growth Protect against corrosion		Protect against corrosion
789		When starting a centrifugal pump valves should always be operated the following way: Both valves closed Both valves open Suction valve open, delivery valve closed Suction valve closed, delivery valve open		Suction valve open, delivery valve closed
790		A consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the discharge valve closed would be: Relief valve will open Motor will overheat Motor overload will open Pump will overheat		Pump will overheat
791		What is the main purpose of routine testing of cooling water? To detect dissolved oxygen in the water To measure the pH - value of the water To ensure that the proper residuals of treatment chemicals, as specified, are maintained at all times To detect presence of contaminants in the water		To ensure that the proper residuals of treatment chemicals, as specified, are maintained at all times
792		The purpose of the wear ring for the illustrated pump is to – Provide a replaceable wear surface for the shaft. Provide a replaceable wear surface for the pump housing/impeller. Support the end of the impeller. Absorb all impeller thrust.		Provide a replaceable wear surface for the pump housing/impeller.
793		What is the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal on a centrifugal pump? Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear but mechanical seals are not Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by liquid, but mechanical seals do not require cooling The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft If packing fails the pump can be kept running by tightening the glands, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be renewed to stop the leakage		If packing fails the pump can be kept running by tightening the glands, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be renewed to stop the leakage
794		You have emptied the bilge well in the engine room using the bilge pump. After stopping, why is it important that all valves are closed ? For safety reasons, otherwise seawater could enter the engine room. To keep the pumphouse empty for fluid to ensure an easier start of the pump. To avoid the pumphouse to be emptied for fluid. To avoid corrosion inside the pump.		For safety reasons, otherwise seawater could enter the engine room.
795		The electric motor on one of your centrifugal pumps has for a period of time gradually been running at lower and lower Amp-load. The pump is still supplying water, but the pressure is reduced. Which of the below alternatives is probably the reason? The pump has suction from many places at the same time. The pump has been more effective because the suction strainer has been removed. Inner diameter of impeller is bigger due to cavitations, or outer diameter reduced by erosion. The pump is running at lower speed due to short circuit in the electric motor.		Inner diameter of impeller is bigger due to cavitations, or outer diameter reduced by erosion.
796		Centrifugal pumps and displacement pumps differ in several characteristics. Which of the following statements regarding a centrifugal pump is correct? A centrifugal pump is always fitted in a vertical possition. A centrifugal pump is designed to take suction from 30 - 35 meters heigth (suction height). The inlet is in the outer diameter of the impeller and the pressure discharge is in the center of the impeller. It is important that the rotation direction is correct to avoid dry running.		It is important that the rotation direction is correct to avoid dry running.
797		In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would You consider to be the normal operating range of phenolphthalein alkalinity? 100 - 300 PPM CaCO3. 0 - 100 PPM CaCO3. 300 - 600 PPM CaCO3. 500 - 1000 PPM CaCO3.		100 - 300 PPM CaCO3.
798		On a ship installation it is preferable on vertical pumps to have shaft sealing at the pump upper only. For what reason? Observance of conditions (i.e. leakage) if mechanically sealed. Containment of liquid in the pump over long idle periods. All of the mentioned alternatives. Adjustment of the seal if possible.		All of the mentioned alternatives.
799		In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, if after testing the water You found the P. alkalinity to be 450 PPM CaCo3, what action would You take? Decrease dosage. Blow down boiler and reduce dosage. Increase dosage. Do nothing.		Blow down boiler and reduce dosage.
800		What type of pump of the below mentioned would be most suited for serving as a high pressure boiler water feed pump? Counter screw. Axial flow. Rotary base. Multistage centrifugal.		Multistage centrifugal.
801		What is the primary function of a non-return valve fitted in the suction line of a pump? To prevent the suction line from draining and keeping the pump primed. To keep the pump from losing its balance. To keep one foot of liquid in the suction line. To regulate the flow of liquid through the pump.		To prevent the suction line from draining and keeping the pump primed.
802		While their respective characteristics differ in detail, which of the following main operating features do all positive displacement pumps have in common if they are working under non-cavitating conditions? They are self-priming. All of the mentioned alternatives. Flow is almost directly proportional to speed. The pump will develop a discharge pressure equal to the resistance to be overcome, irrespective of speed.		All of the mentioned alternatives.
803		The type of pump used for delivering the oily-water mixture to an oily-water separator governs considerably the degree of contamination in the effluent. What type of pump would be best suited not to churn the supply and produce small oil droplets (less than 200 Axial Flow. Mixed flow (part axial, part centrifugal). Screw. Centrifugal.		Screw.
804		Which type of rotary pumps are suited for use as lubrication and oil piston cooling services on diesel engines? Gear. Screw. Any of the mentioned alternatives. Vane.		Any of the mentioned alternatives.
805		If a shaft of a centrifugal pump shows excessive wear by way of the stuffing box, is this caused by : Excessive heating caused by over tightening of the gland packing. Incorrect material used in construction of the shaft. Discharge pressure of the pump too high. Wrong direction of rotation.		Excessive heating caused by over tightening of the gland packing.
806		When testing boiler water, should the sample be: At room temperature. As hot as possible. It makes no difference. At lowest possible temperature.		At room temperature.
807		From where should a boiler water sample be taken for testing? From the water space. From the steam space. From the fee system. Anyplace where possible.		From the water space.
808		Low temperature corrosion can occur in both oil fired and exhaust/waste heat recovery boilers. Considering a fuel with same sulphur content, the air/fuel number,lamda, in a combustion process also indicates a relation to what temperature sulphuric acid condensates. What is the correct relation between air/fuel ratio and low temperature corrosion? High air/fuel ratio lowers the boiler temperature causing the sulphur acid to condensate. High air/fuel ratio rises the air speed and thereby lowers the pressure and temperature so sulphur acid condensates. High air/fuel ratio does not contribute significant to change of condensation temperature. High air/fuel ratio rises the condensation temperature, and thereby reducing the safe limits between normal operation and condensation temperature.		High air/fuel ratio rises the condensation temperature, and thereby reducing the safe limits between normal operation and condensation temperature.
809		During operation: What is one of the most important differences between a centrifugal pump and a piston pump? A centrifugal pump does not need lubrication. A centrifugal pump can not go as low as a piston pump in the vacuum area. A piston pump is always driven by steam. It is easier to damage a centrifugal pump than a piston pump if they run dry.		It is easier to damage a centrifugal pump than a piston pump if they run dry.
810		What is the meaning of the term purification? Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid. Operation as the 2.nd separator in a serial system. Cleaning a liquid. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and at the same time removing of solids.		Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and at the same time removing of solids.
811		What do we mean with "dual controlled" fuel pumps when we talk about valve controlled fuel pumps? We have two equal governors Both the suction and spill valves are controlled The fuel pumps are controlled in pairs There is a stand-by pump for each of the fuel pumps		Both the suction and spill valves are controlled
812		What do we mean with "edge of cut off" when we talk about pumps with turnable plunger? The upper edge of the plunger Close to the end of the stroke The edge on the plunger which opens for the return line The edge which cut off the fuel oil supply to the fuel oil pumps		The edge on the plunger which opens for the return line
813		Which main unit determines the increasing/decreasing of the fuel quantity, i.e. controls "the effective delivery stroke" (Bosch type pump)? The booster pump The governor The fuel master control valve The fuel injector		The governor
814		In a heat exchanger where seawater is used to cool fresh water, the seawater pressure should be maintained lower than the freshwater pressure to: Minimize the load on the seawater pump Prevent contamination if leaks are developed Eliminate scaling problems on seawater side Reduce erosion		Prevent contamination if leaks are developed
815		When an evaporator is operated in extremely cold water you may need to throttle the seawater supply to: Avoid flooding the evaporator shell Increase the evaporator distilling rate Maintain the specified boiling temperature Prevent the evaporator from cold shocking		Maintain the specified boiling temperature
816		The condenser in an evaporator is cooled by: Air Brine Seawater Distillate		Seawater
817		Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger could be the result of: Waterside fouling Poor heat transfer Excessive cooling water velocity High temperature		Excessive cooling water velocity
818		What type of heat exchanger is shown? Evaporative Bundle and stack Plate Shell and tube		Plate
819		What is the pumping capacity depending on? Total pressure head Liquid temperature Suction pressure Liquid viscosity		Total pressure head
820		What is the purpose of a separator? To remove water. To remove solids, water and sludge. To remove water and sludge. To keep constant level in the service-tank		To remove solids, water and sludge.
821		Too low oil flow in the fuel oil separator (ALCAP) oil outlet line is caused by: Low fuel oil temperature. The main engine is running slowly. Bowl opens unintentionally during operation. Abnormal water content in the oil.		Bowl opens unintentionally during operation.
822		If the temperature increase, what will happen with the interface in the bowl? Interface outwards center. Increase of the purification capacity. Will have no effect on interface. Interface towards center.		Interface towards center.
823		Some 4-stroke engines are equipped with cooled fuel valves. Why is it so important to keep the coolant`s temperature correct? To avoid overheating the fuel nozzle. For cooling and to maintain correct viscosity on the fuel when injected. For cooling only. For preheating only.		For cooling and to maintain correct viscosity on the fuel when injected.
824		What is the purpose of the corrugations on the plates? Stiffening of the thin metal sheet. To increase the surface area. To increase turbulence in the liquids. All of these.		Stiffening of the thin metal sheet.
825		Does liquid turbulence improve the efficiency of a Plate Heat Exchanger? Yes. No. Makes no difference. Turbulence is not possible in a Plate Heat Exchanger?		Yes.
826		Why is the maximum pressure in a Plate Heat Exchanger usually limited to about 10 bar? Possibility of rupturing the plates. All the other alternatives. Pump capacity. Difficult to seal plates above this pressure.		Difficult to seal plates above this pressure.
827		Which of the following is true when comparing Plate Type with Shell and Tube Type Heat Exchangers? All of these. Better sealing between liquids in Shell and Tube. Physically smaller for the same capacity. The capacity can easily be changed.		Physically smaller for the same capacity.
828		Why is it important to keep the condense PH- value in correct range? To prevent oxygen corrosions. To prevent sludge depositing in the water. It is not important. To neutralize the acids occurring in the condensate system.		To neutralize the acids occurring in the condensate system.
829		A refractory material is one that will retain its solid state even at very high temperatures, and furnace temperatures as high as 1650 They are used to protect exposed parts of drum, which otherwise could become overheated. To protect the furnace casing from overheating, burning and possible escape of gases into boiler room. All of the mentioned alternatives. They act as a heat sink, and ensure more even distribution of heat throughout the furnace.		All of the mentioned alternatives.
830		Which of the below statements characterizes the most significant differences between a water-tube boiler and a fire-tube boiler during operation? The watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water, when the oilburner is still in action. The firetube boiler does not need any non-return valves in the feedwater line circuit. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and contains less water. They suffer from major damages when run dry during operation. The firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam pressure.		Water-tube boilers are more efficient and contains less water. They suffer from major damages when run dry during operation.
831		Some 4-stroke engines are fitted with a rotorcap on the cylinder head valves. For what reason? Distribute the exhaust gas or the air inlet better to improve combustion. To prevent the valve spindel to stick Improve the scaling surface function, increase the service time of the exhaust valve in the engine. Rotate the inlet valve during operation.		Improve the scaling surface function, increase the service time of the exhaust valve in the engine.
832		If the water and oil have emulsified, is it possible to remove the water in the separator Provided this is fresh water, yes It depends on the viscosity of the oil No Yes		No
833		The cooling water temperature out of the engine becomes too high. Everything else is normal. What is the reason for this? Seawater is leaking in to the fresh water in the cooler. Fouled cooling water system. The amount of additives in the cooling water is insufficient. Low level in the expansion tank.		Fouled cooling water system.
834		The cooling water temperature out of the engine becomes too high. Everything else is normal. What is the reason for this? Too high temperature in the charging air. Any of the others. Air in the cooling water system. Overload of the engine.		Air in the cooling water system.
835		The cooling water temperatures in and out of the engine become too high. What is the most probably reason for this? The temperature in the engine room is too high. The control valve for the cooling water cooler is sticking. Fouled cooling water system. The lubricating oil has too high temperature.		The control valve for the cooling water cooler is sticking.
836		On the air compressor`s crankcase there is a small valve that lets off overpressure. What do we have to do if this valve is letting off pressure and oil moisture ? Block the valve because it pollutes the engine room (block off the valve). Check the clearance in the bearings. Increase the flow of cooling water. Overhaul the compressor unit.		Overhaul the compressor unit.
837		If there is never any water in the lubricating oil, why must we add water to the self cleaning separator bowl To keep the interface in correct position To clean the disc stack To minimise oil losses and prevent the sludge getting too hard To enable the transducer to get an accurate reference value		To minimise oil losses and prevent the sludge getting too hard
838		If oil flows out of the bowl casing drain of a solids ejecting separator what is the most likely problem The flow rate is too high The sludge tank is full Oil has been fed to the separator before full speed Insufficient amount of bowl closing water		Insufficient amount of bowl closing water
839		In a series installation of a purifier and a clarifier, what is the purpose of the clarifier As a safety net, for improved cleaning of the fuel oil To get round the problem of fluctuating temperature In case the gravity disc is too small You will probably have less alarms		As a safety net, for improved cleaning of the fuel oil
840		In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is probably wrong if processed oil contains water Gravity disc is too large Gravity disc is too small Back pressure is too high Gravity disc is too small. Flow rate is too high		Gravity disc is too small. Flow rate is too high
841		What will happen in a purifier bowl if either; oil density, viscosity or flow increase The interface moves outwards The interface moves inwards Loss of water seal It depends on the change in temperature	The interface moves outwards
842		What is the reason to too high pressure in the fuel oil separator oil outlet line? Low fuel oil temperature. Broken water seal. Oil feed pumps stopped Valve in the outlet line partly closed.	Valve in the outlet line partly closed.
843		Why is temperature control accuracy so important when cleaning lub oil in a conventional separator Small changes in temperature can cause large movement of the interface To prevent to many temperature alarms Temperature fluctuations can affect the back pressure Continuous high temperature gives the best separation	Small changes in temperature can cause large movement of the interface
844		Too low oil flow in the fuel oil purifier oil outlet line is caused by: Broken water seal. Control paring disc dirty. High fuel oil temperature. Low level in the fuel oil settling tank.	Broken water seal.
845		What is the recommended back pressure for a lub oil separator 2,0 bar 3,5 bar 1,4 bar It depends on the installation	It depends on the installation
846		What separation temperature is recommended for lubricating oil of a trunk piston engine operating on HFO 99 Celsius 95 Fahrenheit 95 Celsius 90 Celsius	95 Celsius
847		What is the difference between purification and clarification Clarifiers are used when water are present In a clarifier solids are removed from oil, whereas in a purifier solids and water are removed from oil Nothing, both use centrifugal force It depends on the amount of water present	In a clarifier solids are removed from oil, whereas in a purifier solids and water are removed from oil
848		Which of the following factors affect the separation process Maintenance interval, temperature, feed rate, particle distribution Density, viscosity, flow rate, temperature, gravity disc diameter Gravity, particle size, viscosity, density difference Discharge interval, temperature, feed rate, viscosity	Density, viscosity, flow rate, temperature, gravity disc diameter
849		What phenomenon is used for liquid cleaning by centrifugal separators Gravity Stokes Law Centrifugal force Sedimentation	Centrifugal force
850		What may be the reason to an unsatisfactory separation result for a fuel oil separator of ALCAP type? Throughput too high. Sludge deposits in operating system. Broken water seal. Low level in the fuel oil settling tank.	Throughput too high.
851		In a fuel oil separator liquid flows out through bowl casing drain and/or sludge outlet. What is the reason to this? Sludge discharge or water draining in progress. Strainer in operating water high-pressure side, clogged or water pressure too low. Seal ring in sliding bowl bottom defective. Any of the others.	Any of the others.
852		The fuel oil separator (ALCAP) bowl discharge is not working properly Opening water function missing. Water outlet valve is not closing properly. Back pressure in oil outlet too high. Broken water seal.	Opening water function missing.
853		Classification societies require that when initially fitted to a boiler, safety valves must be subjected to a test of accumulation of pressure. Is this to: Ensure the maximum firing rate can keep the pressure above normal working pressure. Ensure the valves are of the correct discharge capacity for the boiler. See how high the boiler pressure will go before the safety valve operates. See at what pressure the safety valve will reset.	Ensure the valves are of the correct discharge capacity for the boiler.
854		Is too high separation pre-heating temperature harmful to lubricating oil Yes No It depends on the change in temperature Not at temperatures used for pre-heating	Not at temperatures used for pre-heating
855		Too low oil flow in the fuel oil purifier oil outlet line is caused by: Broken water seal. Control paring disc dirty. High fuel oil temperature. Low level in the fuel oil settling tank.	Broken water seal.
856		After closing the drain during the blowing procedure for a glass water gauge, the water cock is opened and the water flows to the top of the glass. Then the steam cock is opened and the water flows down and out of the glass; Which of the following statements are correct? The water level in the boiler is below the water cock connection of the boiler. It is unsafe to put feed water into the boiler. The water level is above the steam cock connection of the boiler. There is a danger of priming the boiler if any additional feed is put into it. The water level is normal, but it requires time for the gauge glass to stabilise. It is safe to put feed water into the boiler. The water level is between the water cock connection of the boiler, and the bottom of the gauge glass. It is safe to put feed water into the boiler.	The water level is between the water cock connection of the boiler, and the bottom of the gauge glass. It is safe to put feed water into the boiler.
857		When installing a new water gauge glass you should secure the bolts from Center, alternately towards each end From top to bottom From bottom to top Does not matter	Center, alternately towards each end
858		When you are cleaning the fuel-oil burner tips you should use Steel scraper Pocket knife Brass knife Wire brush	Brass knife
859		What is the first thing you would check when taking over a boiler watch The periscope The water level The bilges The oil pressure	The water level
860		Soot blowers should be used in proper sequence so that Decks will not be full of soot No excess stress in the boiler Soot would be swept toward the uptakes No loss of steam pressure	Soot would be swept toward the uptakes
861		The air cock on a boiler is located at Superheater inlet side Top of return header Highest point of the steam and water drum The end of the superheater	Highest point of the steam and water drum
862		The valve that prevents water from backing out of the boiler into the feed-water line is called Skin valve Feed-check valve Feed-stop valve Bottom-blow valve	Feed-check valve
863		What may be the reason to an unsatisfactory separation result for a fuel oil separator of ALCAP type? Low level in the fuel oil settling tank. Throughput too high. Sludge deposits in operating system. Broken water seal.	Throughput too high.
864		In a fuel oil separator liquid flows out through bowl casing drain and/or sludge outlet. What is the reason to this? Strainer in operating water high-pressure side, clogged or water pressure too low. Seal ring in sliding bowl bottom defective. Any of the others. Sludge discharge or water draining in progress.	Any of the others.
865		The boiler gauge glasses should be blown down Once a day Every hour Once a week At the beginning of every watch	At the beginning of every watch
866		Too low oil flow in the fuel oil separator (ALCAP) oil outlet line is caused by: The main engine is running slowly. Bowl opens unintentionally during operation. Abnormal water content in the oil. Low fuel oil temperature.	Bowl opens unintentionally during operation.
867		In order for fuel oil to burn properly it must Have a proper temperature All alternatives Be atomized properly Have sufficient air to support combustion	All alternatives
868		What is the reason to too high pressure in the fuel oil separator oil outlet line? Low fuel oil temperature. Broken water seal. Oil feed pumps stopped Valve in the outlet line partly closed.	Valve in the outlet line partly closed.
869		The boiler have been shut down completely for inspection and repair. You have finished work and are going to start firing the boiler. What is the correct procedure for heating a boiler from cold? Start the firing on minimum rate and continuously fire until boiler is up to pressure. Start the firing on maximum rate and raise the pressure in as short a period as possible, to save energy. Start the firing on minimum rate and alternate with maximum rate continuously firing until the boiler is up to pressure. Start with intermittent firing, using small firing periods and long intervals gradually building up to longer firing periods and shorter intervals.	Start with intermittent firing, using small firing periods and long intervals gradually building up to longer firing periods and shorter intervals.
870		Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in a boiler? Ionisation. Convection. Conduction. Radiation.	Ionisation.
871		The economizer is used for Heating of the fuel oil Lower the superheater temperature Heating of the feed-water Desuperheating of the steam	Heating of the feed-water
872		If the water goes out of sight in the gauge glass, the first thing to do is Secure all burners Call chief engineer Close feed-water stop valve Increase feed-pump speed	Secure all burners
873		What phenomenon is used for liquid cleaning by centrifugal separators Gravity Stokes Law Centrifugal force Sedimentation	Centrifugal force
874		The deaerating heater is used on The closed-type feed-water system The open-type feed-water system All steam plants Only low-pressure boilers	The closed-type feed-water system
875		If a boiler is smoking Fuel oil temperature too low Dirty burners Too little combustion air All alternatives	All alternatives
876		The main purpose of the superheater vent valve on the boiler is Remove water from the superheater Lower too high superheater pressure after shut down Ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam pressure after shut down Remove air from the superheater	Ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam pressure after shut down
877		The fuel oil separator (ALCAP) bowl discharge is not working properly Broken water seal. Opening water function missing. Water outlet valve is not closing properly. Back pressure in oil outlet too high.	Opening water function missing.
878		If the refrigerating compressor has been running satisfactorily for a long period of time but suddenly the compartment temperature started to rise, the trouble might be Expansion valve has water frozen in it A refrigerant leak has developed All alternatives Solenoid valve jammed shut	All alternatives
879		How can we maintain necessary NPSH? By control of liquid temperature By reducing vapour pressure By control of liquid flow By increasing pump rpm	By control of liquid flow
880		The principal objects for boiler feed water treatment should be: Control of the sludge formation and prevention of carry over with the steam. Prevention of scale formation in the boiler and feed water system by (a) using distilled water or (b) precipitating all scale forming salts into a non-adherent sludge. All of the mentioned reasons. Prevention of corrosion in the boiler and feed water system by maintaining the boiler water in an alkaline condition and free from dissolved gases.	All of the mentioned reasons.
881		Which statement is true? Never start a centrifugal pump with a closed delivery valve The purpose of the priming unit on centrifugal pumps is to evacuate the suction line if air is present The electric motor will be overheated if the suction valve is fully open when starting a centrifugal pump When running in cold climates, both sea chests is closed to avoid to low temperature on Fresh Water	The purpose of the priming unit on centrifugal pumps is to evacuate the suction line if air is present
882		Which statement is true? The FW-HT is circulated in a closed system, cooling cylinder jackets on Main Engine and aux. Engines The FW-HT is cooling the Fresh Water Generator The bottom sea chest is used when low temperature on Sea Water is required The FW-HT is cooling the Generators	The FW-HT is circulated in a closed system, cooling cylinder jackets on Main Engine and aux. Engines
883		Why use a central cooling system? It is not a complicated system It is cheap to install It is more easy to operate It requires less maintenance	It requires less maintenance
884		Which statement is true? To minimize the scale formation, the Sea Water outlet temperature should never exeed 80 C To minimize the scale formation, the Sea Water outlet temperature should never exeed 50 C The conventional cooling system requires less maintenance than other cooling system Jacket and scavening air cooling are done by circulating Fresh Water in a closed circuit	To minimize the scale formation, the Sea Water outlet temperature should never exeed 50 C
885		Which statement is true? When the ME is running, the Fresh Water enters the engine at the top and leaves the engine at the bottom Minimum scavening air temperature is 60 C to avoid dewing in the scavening air cooler Normal temperature of the oil after the cooler is approx. 65 C. Normal temperature of the lub oil after the cooler is approx. 45 C.	Normal temperature of the lub oil after the cooler is approx. 45 C.
886		If there is never any water in the lubricating oil, why must we add water to the self cleaning separator bowl To enable the transducer to get an accurate reference value To keep the interface in correct position To clean the disc stack To minimise oil losses and prevent the sludge getting too hard	To minimise oil losses and prevent the sludge getting too hard
887		If oil flows out of the bowl casing drain of a solids ejecting separator what is the most likely problem The flow rate is too high The sludge tank is full Oil has been fed to the separator before full speed Insufficient amount of bowl closing water	Insufficient amount of bowl closing water
888		One of the main purposes of refractories in the boiler furnace is to Protect economizer Preheat the feed water Preheat the combustion air Prevent excessive furnace heat losses	Prevent excessive furnace heat losses
889		Cooling water expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a constant head on the system and: Provide an air cushion Allow for increase in water volume Reduce temperature Reduce water turbulence	Allow for increase in water volume
890		Feed check valves for main and auxilliary purposes are normally of the double shut off type, as shown in the diagram. What is the main function of the non-return valve? To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out by the feed line, if a feed line fracture or a joint in the line blows. To allow overhaul of the screw down valve when the non-return valve is shut and the boiler is steaming. To increase the workload for staff when overhauling the boiler.	To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out by the feed line, if a feed line fracture or a joint in the line blows.
891		The purpose of the Check the colour of the flame Controlling the combustion air supply to the boiler All the alternatives Shut off the oil flow if the flames goes out	Shut off the oil flow if the flames goes out
892		When you light a fire in a boiler, you must always Wait until it is cold enough Use a proper torch Close the air register completely Open burner valve only half	Use a proper torch
893		If a boiler is smoking Too much combustion air Too little combustion air Faulty burner tip Too high fuel oil pressure	Too much combustion air
894		Which of the following could cause a Oil temperature too high Opening air registers too quickly Trying to ignite burner from hot brickwork Oil pressure too high	Trying to ignite burner from hot brickwork
895		What would you do before you start soot blowing Notify the bridge All alternatives Increase steam pressure slightly Drain soot-blower lines thoroughly	All alternatives
896		What would you do before giving a boiler a Raise the water level a couple of inches above normal Drop the water level a couple of inches below normal Increase the oil pressure Increase the oil temperature	Raise the water level a couple of inches above normal
897		A faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater can cause Reduced heat capacity of the heater Increase in oil temperature Fuel-oil leak Increased heat capacity of the heater	Reduced heat capacity of the heater
898		Special types of periscopes are fitted to boilers to observe Smoke going out the stack Combustion air Water level in drum Oil atomization	Smoke going out the stack
899		The steam that is discharged from the safety valves goes to the Bilges Atmospheric line Main condenser Auxiliary condenser	Atmospheric line
900		In a series installation of a purifier and a clarifier, what is the purpose of the clarifier As a safety net, for improved cleaning of the fuel oil To get round the problem of fluctuating temperature In case the gravity disc is too small You will probably have less alarms	As a safety net, for improved cleaning of the fuel oil
901		What do you think would be the most likely cause of too low suction pressure in a freon compressor? Too little gas in the system. Blocked condenser tubes. Broken suction valve plate. Blocked condenser.	Too little gas in the system.
902		What do we have to do if the lube oil becomes yellow/white (mixed with water) ? Clean the lube oil filter with very short intervals. Fill more lube oil to dilute the water contained in the oil. Drain the water. Change the lube oil.	Change the lube oil.
903		When an air compressor is going to be started it is important that the compressor is started with the "blow off" valves open. Why? To ensure that the electric motor will not have a too low torque during start. To ensure that the compressor does not have any back pressure due to a leak suction valve in stage one. To be sure that all pressure valves in the HP line to the starting bottle are open. To ensure that we do not have any water assembly in the cylinders when the compressor start.	To ensure that we do not have any water assembly in the cylinders when the compressor start.
904		What is meant by a two stage compressor ? Air from stage one goes through discharge valves in stage one and through suction valves into stage two. In stage two it will be compressed to high pressure air. The two stage air compressor takes some air from the surroundings to stage one and compress and some air from the surroundings to stage two and compress. The compressed air goes back from stage two and into stage one to get extra pressure before it goes into the starting air bottles. Two stage air compressors have the capability to compress air in stage one and dry the air in stage two.	Air from stage one goes through discharge valves in stage one and through suction valves into stage two. In stage two it will be compressed to high pressure air.
905		In a two stage compressor you will find pistons with different diameters (one is bigger than the other).Which one of the following statements is correct ? A big piston will deliver dryer air into stage one. A big piston will give less oil content in the air. The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston The biggest diameter piston is the stage two piston.	The smallest diameter piston is the stage two piston
906		What would be the effect if air was to enter the freon system? The suction pressure will decrease. Increase in condenser pressure. Decrease in condenser pressure. Foaming of the oil.	Increase in condenser pressure.
907		After starting a freon compressor, how long should you wait before opening the oil separator return valve? One minute. Carefully open the valve. After the separator shell has warmed up. Open the valve immediately.	After the separator shell has warmed up.
908		What symptom would you think shows that the freon filter drier has become blocked? A large temperature drop across the drier. A hammering noise from the drier. Pressure rise before the drier. A hammering noise from the compressors.	A large temperature drop across the drier.
909		At which of the pressures shown should the low suction pressure trip operate on a freon compressor? +2 bar - 0.5 bar + 5.0 bar + 10 bar	+2 bar
910		You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is low. What will You do? Decrease the oil temperature. Clean the system and change the oil. Increase the oil temperature. Start to purify the oil.	Clean the system and change the oil.
911		What do you think would be the most likely cause of high discharge pressure from a freon compressor? Broken suction valve plate. Blocked condenser. Too little gas in the system. Broken discharge valve plate.		Blocked condenser.
912		At which of the pressures shown should the high discharge pressure trip operate on a freon compressor? + 18.5 bar + 5.0 bar + 25 bar + 10 bar		+ 18.5 bar
913		From the pressure gauges shown can you tell what is the oil pressure in a freon compressor? 8,5 bar 2.0 bar 6.5 bar 5.5 bar		2.0 bar
914		During standstill liquid may condense in the crankcase or oil separator. Why is it important to heat up the oil before start? Compressor oil regulating system will operate better. It should never be done. To avoid the compressor-oil to disappear from the crankcase during starting. The compressor will run better.		To avoid the compressor-oil to disappear from the crankcase during starting.
915		In a pressure type lubrication system, the lube oil service pump normally takes suction from the sump tank and discharge directly to the: Lube oil header. Lube oil cooler. Main thrust bearing. Gravity feed tank.		Lube oil cooler.
916		The oil - film pressure produced by a rotating journal is: The same as the pressure in the lubricating system. Highest at the oil groove location: Greater than the pressure in the lubricating system. Less than the pressure in the lubricating system.		Greater than the pressure in the lubricating system.
917		A lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number is most effectively used: As an additive to depress pour point. Only in very high temperature installations. As an additive to slow oxidation. Over a wide range of temperature variations.		Over a wide range of temperature variations.
918		Before entering the purifier, the lubricating oil is heated in order to: Prevent corrosion. Increase the viscosity and improve purification. Lower the viscosity and improve purification. Boil of water.		Lower the viscosity and improve purification.
919		A centrifugal filter relies on the centrifugal force and can therefore remove: High density, sub - micron particles. Water. Fuel oil from the lubricating oil. Low density, sub - micron particles.		High density, sub - micron particles.
920		A clogged / dirty lube oil filter can be detected best by: A decrease in oil viscosity. The pressure drop across the filter. High lube oil temperature. Visual inspection of the filter elements.		The pressure drop across the filter.
921		Which of the pressures is the most satisfactory at the suction of an air conditioning freon compressor? 0.5 bar 7.0 bar 4.5 bar 2.0 bar	4.5 bar
922		If diesel fuel contamination occurs in the crankcase oil of an auxiliary engine, the oil viscosity will: Decrease. Increase. Stay the same. Nothing happens.	Decrease.
923		You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is high. What will You do? Increase the lub oil pressure. Clean the system and change the oil. Decrease the cooling water temperature for the oil. Increase the cooling water temperature for the oil.	Clean the system and change the oil.
924		What can happen with a lub. oil cooled piston if You stop the lub. oil pump immediately after You stop the engine? You save the oil sealings in the piston. Overheating of the piston, and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers. Nothing happens. The oil flashpoint will be changed.	Overheating of the piston, and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers.
925		Total Base Number ( TBN ) is important as a measure of neutralizing ability against strong Acids. What will You do if this TBN base number is reduced to a low level? Send one lub oil sample to new analysis. Nothing. Renew lub oil in the system. Purify the oil system.	Renew lub oil in the system.
926		Why is it so important to keep the lub oil viscosity within safe limits? The luboil viscosity has no influence on the oil`s lubrication ability. To keep the additives in good condition. It is not important To keep the oil protective film between moving metal surfaces.	To keep the oil protective film between moving metal surfaces.
927		What symptom would you think means that the freon filter drier has become blocked? A large temperature drop across the drier. Pressure rise before the drier. A hammering noise from the drier. Pressure drop before the driver.	A large temperature drop across the drier.
928		Why are crankcase heaters fitted to freon compressors? To boil off any water. None of the mentioned alternatives. To prevent freon condensing when the compressor is stopped. To stop oil from thickening.	To prevent freon condensing when the compressor is stopped.
929		After starting a freon compressor, how long should you wait before opening the oil separator return valve? I do not know. After the separator shell has warmed up. One minute. Open the valve immediately.	After the separator shell has warmed up.
930		What could cause engine oil to get a "Milky" colour? Water contamination. Fuel contamination. Overheating. The oil is too cold.	Water contamination.
931		On the air compressor`s crankcase there is a small valve that lets off overpressure. What do we have to do if this valve is letting off pressure and oil moisture ? Check the clearance in the bearings. Increase the flow of cooling water. Overhaul the compressor unit. Block the valve because it pollutes the engine room (block off the valve).	Overhaul the compressor unit.
932		If water contamination occurs in the crankcase oil of an auxiliary engine the oil viscosity will: Decrease. Stay at the same. Nothing happens. Increase.	Increase.
933		At which of the pressures shown should the low oil pressure trip operate on a freon compressor? - 0.5 bar + 5.0 bar + 10 bar + 1.0 bar	+ 1.0 bar
934		What would be the effect if air was to enter a freon refrigeration system? Foaming of the oil. I do not know. Increase in condenser pressure. Decrease in condenser pressure.	Increase in condenser pressure.
935		What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor discharge of an air conditioning system? + 5 +140 + 20 + 85	+ 85
936		What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor suction of an air conditioning system? + 30 - 10 + 5 - 5	+ 5
937		What is the state of the refrigerant immediately after the evaporator? Liquid at low pressure. Liquid at high pressure. Vapour at low pressure. Vapour at high pressure.	Vapour at low pressure.
938		What is the state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion valve of a freon system? Liquid at high pressure. Vapour at high pressure. Liquid at low pressure. Vapour at low pressure.	Liquid at high pressure.
939		What pressure is present in the crankcase of a freon compressor? The same as discharge pressure. The same as atmospheric pressure. None of the mentioned alternatives. The same as suction pressure.	The same as suction pressure.
940		The discharge pressure of a freon compressor gradually falls below the desired value. What action would you take to increase the pressure again Shut in on the compressor discharge valve. Increase the sea water flow through the condenser. I do not now. Reduce the sea water flow through the condenser.	Reduce the sea water flow through the condenser.
941		What do you think could be the cause of an air conditioning evaporation "Icing Up"? Low sea water temperature. High sea water temperature. Too low suction pressure. Too high discharge pressure.	Too low suction pressure.
942		If a leak occurs in a lube oil cooler, the water cannot mix with the oil because the: Cooling pump will automatically stop. Outlet valve will automatically close. Oil pressure is greater than the water pressure. By-pass valve will open.	Oil pressure is greater than the water pressure.
943		What type of lubricating oils are generally used in auxiliary engines? Synthetic. It is not important. Detergent. Alkaline.	Detergent.
944		Is too high separation pre-heating temperature harmful to lubricating oil It depends on the change in temperature Not at temperatures used for pre-heating Yes No	Not at temperatures used for pre-heating
945		In the lubricating oil system on an auxiliary diesel engine a duplex filter unit is used because: Clogging of the filter will not occur. Changing of filter element would not interrupt the engine operation. It gives a better filtration of the oil. Pressure drop is half of a single filter unit.	Changing of filter element would not interrupt the engine operation.
946		For a Purifier and Clarifier System should the oil be passed first through the purifier? Depends on oil viscosity. Yes. No. It makes no difference.	Yes.
947		Would the purification efficiency be improved by an increase in throughput? Yes. No. It makes no difference. Depends on the viscosity.	Yes.
948		During execution of a standard UMS-check, the Engineer on Duty is experiencing a "low water level" alarm in a cooling water expansion tank. What will be the appropriate immediate action? The set point for the water level in the expansion tank is temporarily readjusted for later action. The alarm function is blocked for later action The alarm function is blocked and the engineroom is changed to manual mode. Correct water level is obtained by refilling the cooling system, and the entire system is checked for leakages	Correct water level is obtained by refilling the cooling system, and the entire system is checked for leakages
949		What are the compartments to be regularly checked with regard to water and oil leakages? Bilge tank(s) All those listed in the other alternatives Bilge wells Tank top in the engine room.	All those listed in the other alternatives
950		Zinc anodes are used on the seawater side of heat exchangers to: Prevent accumulation of marine growth Protect against corrosion Reduce salinity Prevent scaling	Protect against corrosion
951		If a shaft of a centrifugal pump shows excessive wear by way of the stuffing box, is this caused by : Wrong direction of rotation. Excessive heating caused by over tightening of the gland packing. Incorrect material used in construction of the shaft. Discharge pressure of the pump too high.	Excessive heating caused by over tightening of the gland packing.
952		Which of the following effects is likely caused by oil contamination in the boiler water? It increase the boiler tube metal deposition. It has no effect. It adheres to the boiler tubes and reduce the heat transfer. It combines with solids to produce sticky deposits. It cause pittings on the boiler metal surfaces.	It adheres to the boiler tubes and reduce the heat transfer. It combines with solids to produce sticky deposits.
953		For a large decrease in the specific gravity of the oil, the gravity disc hole diameter should be: Increased. Reduced. Kept the same. Hole diameter is of no importance.	Increased.
954		What will happen in a purifier bowl if either; oil density, viscosity or flow increase Loss of water seal It depends on the change in temperature The interface moves outwards The interface moves inwards	The interface moves outwards
955		Where is the best position of the oil/water interface in these figures? Position C. None of the shown positions. Position A. Position B.	Position A.
956		Why is temperature control accuracy so important when cleaning lub oil in a conventional separator To prevent to many temperature alarms Temperature fluctuations can affect the back pressure Continuous high temperature gives the best separation Small changes in temperature can cause large movement of the interface	Small changes in temperature can cause large movement of the interface
957		If the water and oil have emulsified, is it possible to remove the water in the separator Provided this is fresh water, yes It depends on the viscosity of the oil No Yes	No
958		What would you do if you after starting the separator discovered that the settling tank was full of water Use full separation capacity It depends on the installation Stop the separator and drain the water from the tank Increase the flow through the separator	Stop the separator and drain the water from the tank
959		What is the recommended back pressure for a lub oil separator 1,4 bar It depends on the installation 2,0 bar 3,5 bar	It depends on the installation
960		If a trunk type engine has been running for 24 hour without lub oil separator in operation; when restarting the separator what must be the time between discharges to be set 15 minutes Automatically adjusted Depends on the type of oil 5 minutes	5 minutes
961		What separation temperature is recommended for lubricating oil of a trunk piston engine operating on HFO 90 Celsius 99 Celsius 95 Fahrenheit 95 Celsius	95 Celsius
962		What is the difference between purification and clarification Clarifiers are used when water are present In a clarifier solids are removed from oil, whereas in a purifier solids and water are removed from oil Nothing, both use centrifugal force It depends on the amount of water present	In a clarifier solids are removed from oil, whereas in a purifier solids and water are removed from oil
963		What is the difference between filtration and separation Water can be removed in the separator but not in the filter A filter is static A filter has to be shut down to be cleaned or changed Filters are suitable for removing fine particles	Water can be removed in the separator but not in the filter
964		Which of the following factors affect the separation process Density, viscosity, flow rate, temperature, gravity disc diameter Gravity, particle size, viscosity, density difference Discharge interval, temperature, feed rate, viscosity Maintenance interval, temperature, feed rate, particle distribution	Density, viscosity, flow rate, temperature, gravity disc diameter
965		In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is probably wrong if processed oil contains water Gravity disc is too small Back pressure is too high Gravity disc is too small. Flow rate is too high Gravity disc is too large	Gravity disc is too small. Flow rate is too high
966		When a sudden increase in pressure occurs in a forced lubrication system, you should check for: Glogged lubrication oil pump suction. Contamination in the water side of the lubrication oil cooler. Corrosion of the journals and bearings. Loss of supply to one of the bearings.	Loss of supply to one of the bearings.
967		For a large increase in the specific gravity of the oil, the gravity disc hole diameter should be: Kept the same. Hole diameter is of no importance. Reduced. Increased.	Reduced.
968		A decrease in the viscosity of the lubricating oil in a trunk engine may be due to dilution by: Heavy fuel oil. Diesel oil. Cylinder oil. Water.	Diesel oil.
969		TAN, total acid number is the: Total content of inorganic acids in the oil. Total content of organic acids in the oil. Total content of organic and inorganic acids in the oil. Amount of remaining alkalinity in the oil.	Total content of organic and inorganic acids in the oil.
970		TBN - total base number from a lube oil test, indicates the: Flash point. Amount of contaminants in the lubricating oil. Amount of organic acids in the oil. Alkalinity of the lubricating oil.	Alkalinity of the lubricating oil.
971		What indicates that lube oil has been diluted by fuel oil? A change in the lube oil pressure. A change in the viscosity of the mixture. Lube oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier. Water discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier.	A change in the viscosity of the mixture.
972		Water is best removed from lubricating oil by: Paper filter. Centrifugal separator. Silica gel cartridges. Pressure filter.	Centrifugal separator.
973		An excessive pressure drop across a lube oil strainer could indicate: That the strainer needs cleaning. That the relief valve is stuck open. That the strainer is ok. Any of the above.	That the strainer needs cleaning.
974		During operation of the main engine, the heat absorbed by lubricating oil is removed by the: Sump vents. Scavenge air cooler. Any of the above. Lube oil cooler	Lube oil cooler
975		The purpose of the surface blow valve is to Remove air from feed-water Remove sludge and scale from boiler tubes All alternatives Remove any oil or scum on water surface	Remove any oil or scum on water surface
976		Optimum cleaning effect in a lube oil purifier is achieved by: Keeping the lube oil in a state of low viscosity for a long period in the centrifuge bowl. Keeping a high flow rate through the purifier. Keeping the lube oil in a state of low viscosity for a short period in the centrifuge bowl. Keeping a low temperature and high flow rate through the purifier.	Keeping the lube oil in a state of low viscosity for a long period in the centrifuge bowl.
977		The output pressure of a diesel engine lubricating oil pump is regulated by: An orifice. A variable speed pump drive. A relief valve. A metering valve.	A relief valve.
978		You are lowering the bilge retention tank level overboard via the O.W.S. and you reach the oil/water interface. Would you: Pump the oil to a bunker tank. Continue pumping the oil to the O.W.S. Stopped the O.W.S. Pump the oil to the incinerator tank.	Pump the oil to the incinerator tank.
979		What separation temperature do You recommend for heavy fuel? 70 - 90 Centigrades. 50 - 70 Centigrades. 40 - 50 Centigrades. 98 Centigrades.	98 Centigrades.
980		How do You want to operate the purifier to obtain the best separation result? Flow and temperature have no influence on the result. Separation with correct temperature and low flow rate. By high flow and low temperature. By high flow and high temperature.	Separation with correct temperature and low flow rate.
981		What separating temperature do You mean is best for lub. oil? 60 - 80 Centigrades. 40 - 60 Centigrades. About 50 Centigrades. 85 - 90 Centigrades.	85 - 90 Centigrades.
982		Which items are important to get an optimal separation? Max. flow and min. pressure. Low temperature and flow. Max. flow and high temperature. Correct flow, pressure and temperature (viscosity).	Correct flow, pressure and temperature (viscosity).
983		What is the separator`s intention? To remove solids, water and sludge. To remove water and sludge. To keep constant level in the service tank. To remove water.	To remove solids, water and sludge.
984		What is the meaning of the term purification? Cleaning a liquid. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and at the same time removal of solids. Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid. Operation as the 2.nd separator in a serial system.	Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and at the same time removal of solids.
985		If the temperature decrease, what will happen with the interface in the bowl? Will have no effect on the interface. Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc. Interface towards center. Decreasing of capacity.	Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc.
986		What will happen with the interface in the bowl, if the flow is too high? Will have no effect on the interface. Broken water seal. The separation of the oil is good. The separation of the oil is bad.	Broken water seal.
987		When the temperature of lubricating oil is lowered, an increase will occur in the: Pour point. Viscosity. Flash point. Concentration of contaminants.	Viscosity.
988		Where is the best position of the oil/water interface in this figures? Position A Position B Position C None of the shown positions.	Position A
989		Zinc will corrode to protect which of the following metals? Zinc gives no protection. Cast steel, Iron, Brass & Bronze. Aluminum. Magnesium.	Cast steel, Iron, Brass & Bronze.
990		Which of the following functions are chemical treatments for cooling water system designed to do? None of the functions named above. Minimize corrosion, prevent deposits and scaling, and control of biological growths. Increase design heat transfer coefficients. Decrease the amount of cooling water required.	Minimize corrosion, prevent deposits and scaling, and control of biological growths.
991		What separation temperature do You recommend for heavy fuel? 40 - 50 Centigrades 98 Centigrades 70 - 90 Centigrades 50 - 70 Centigrades	98 Centigrades
992		How do You want to operate the purifier to obtain the best separation result? By high flow and high temperature. Flow and temperature has no influence of the result. Separation with correct temperature and low flow rate. By high flow and low temperature.	Separation with correct temperature and low flow rate.
993		What separating temperature do You mean is best for lub. oil.? 85 - 90 Centigrades. 60 - 80 Centigrades. 40 - 60 Centigrades. About 50 Centigrades.	85 - 90 Centigrades.
994		Which items are important to get an optimal separation? Low temperature and flow. Max flow and high temperature. Correct flow, pressure and temperature. ( Viscosity) Max flow and min. pressure.	Correct flow, pressure and temperature. ( Viscosity)
995		We can observe gray/white smoke from an exhaust pipe in the funnel (from a 4 stroke engine).The possibilities are: Water leaking into the combustion chamber. Broken fuel injector valve. The engine is thermally overloaded. The engine is burning lubrication oil.	Water leaking into the combustion chamber.
996		If the temperature decrease, what will happen with the interface in the bowl ? Will have no effect on interface. Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc. Interface towards center. Decreasing of capacity.	Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc.
997		How often should normal testing of the cooling water be done? Once a month. Once a week. Every day. Every 2.nd week.	Once a week.
998		What will happen with the interface in the bowl, if the flow is too high? The separation of the oil is bad. Will have no effect on interface. Broken water seal. The separation of the oil is good.	Broken water seal.
999		If the temperature decrease, what will happen with the interface in the bowl ? Will have no effect on interface. Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc. Interface towards center Decreasing of capacity.	Broken water seal, oil outside the top disc.
1000		What will You do if the purifier starts to vibrate, or has heavy vibrations? Stop the purifier immediately. Check the bowl for heavy side, deposits, bearings, housing, and the spindle for damage. Check the vibration alarm. Try to increase the flow. Try to decrease flow.	Stop the purifier immediately. Check the bowl for heavy side, deposits, bearings, housing, and the spindle for damage.

Liquefied Gas Tankers. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	"Information regarding assembly points, emergency organization and emergency instructions can be found in the ship’s _____ list" boat emergency muster crew	muster
2	What should your first action be on seeing someone have an accident with spillage of liquefied gas? Look around for assistance Sound the emergency alarm Try to stop the leak Try to get the person away from the leak	Sound the emergency alarm
3	What is the MAIN danger to be guarded against when discharging using a cargo heater with seawater as the heating medium? Overpressurizing of the gas side of the heater Freezing of the water side of the heater Overheating of the gas side of the heater Overpressurizing of the water side of the heater	Freezing of the water side of the heater
4	You are discharging a cargo of Propane and the cargo tank pressures are falling quickly. What would you do to maintain a steady tank pressure? Stop the discharge Request that vapour is supplied from shore Start the reliquefaction plant Slow down the discharge rate	Request that vapour is supplied from shore
5	Which of these would you consider essential equipment to carry when working on the deck of a ship carrying ammonia? Personal hydrocarbon alarm Gloves Personal O2 meter Gas mask	Gas mask
6	A centrifugal pump should always be started against a closed or partially open discharge valve. What is the reason for this? To allow the pipework to cool down To prevent overloading of generators To prevent pressure surges To minimize the pump motor load	To minimize the pump motor load
7	If the containment pressure of LPG increases the boiling point will _____ decrease slightly stay the same increase decrease drastically	increase
8	Pressure gauges on gas tankers are marked in absolute pressure or gauge pressure. Which of these refers to absolute pressure? kPa mPa kPaA Pa	kPaA
9	What is meant when a liquid gas cargo is described as "flammable The vapour will not burn in any circumstances The cargo is not explosive The vapour from the cargo will burn when mixed with air and ignited The cargo is explosive	The vapour from the cargo will burn when mixed with air and ignited
10	Which of these cargoes would you be allowed to carry in a type 3G(as defined by the IMO gas code) ship? Ethylene LNG LPG Liquid Nitrogen	Liquid Nitrogen

Liquefied Gas Tankers. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	Who is responsible for keeping certificates such as the Cargo Ship Safety Construction certificate and Cargo Ship Safety Radio certificate up to date? The Chief Engineer The Master The Second Officer The Chief Officer	The Master
2	Setters can be changed on pilot operated relief valves to increase the lifting pressure as long as this does not exceed the MARVS. What does MARVS stand for? Measurable allowable relief valve setting Minimum allowable relief valve setting Maximum average relief valve setting Maximum allowable relief valve setting	Maximum allowable relief valve setting
3	If the cargo density is different from that specified by the float gauge manufacturer, which of these corrections will compensate for this? List correction Tape correction Float correction Trim correction	Float correction
4	If a gas is carried in a pressurized state how will this affect the temperature at which it is carried? Can be carried much colder It makes no difference Can be carried warmer Can be carried slightly colder	Can be carried warmer
5	One of the sources of pollution from gas cargoes is the release of _____ vapours from the LPG condenser of the reliquefaction plant dioxin incondensible toxic saturated	incondensible
6	Why would an inhibitor be added to a liquefied gas cargo? To identify it more easily To make it less flammable To make it less toxic To stabilise an unstable or reactive product	To stabilise an unstable or reactive product
7	Operational Which of these would you NOT use on a gas pool fire? Co2 Dry powder Foam Water	Water
8	Which of these cargoes would NOT need TOTAL segregation when carried in separate tanks on the same ship? Propylene and VCM Propane and Butane Butadiene and Ammonia Propane and Ammonia	Propane and Butane
9	On an LNG tanker, why would you carry out cargo tank spraying operations? As part of the gas freeing operations To use up the cargo left over after discharge To keep the tank pressures down To cool the tanks ready for loading	To cool the tanks ready for loading
10	If you changed the set point of a relief valve, where would you make a record of the change? Engine room log Cargo operations book Personal notebook Ship`s log	Ship`s log

Liquefied Gas Tankers. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	What do you understand by the term ESD system? Emergency stop and disconnect system Emergency shore disconnecting system Emergency shut down system Emergency shutting and disconnecting system	Emergency shut down system
2	A cargo tank has been gas freed from LNG and you wish to inspect it. From where would you take samples to test for hydrocarbons? The top, bottom and levels in between The top of the tank The top and bottom The bottom of the tank	The top, bottom and levels in between
3	One of the main parameters to be considered in tank design for refrigerated gas cargoes is _____ stress compressive tensile ductile thermal	thermal
4	On all gas ships, any pipework entering or leaving the cargo tank must do so through the _____ of the tank forward end bottom top aft end	top
5	Why is glycol added to the cooling water system of reliquefaction plant? It has better heat transfer properties It lubricates the pumps To stop the water boiling To stop the water freezing	To stop the water freezing
6	Colourless and odourless gases are stenched to assist in their _____ carriage cooling detection combustion	detection
7	You are gas freeing a tank from LNG using a combustion type inert gas generator. After blowing through with air, for which of these would you not need to test? Hydrogen Sulphide Carbon dioxide Carbon Monoxide Hydrocarbons	Hydrogen Sulphide
8	A _____ management system complying with the ISM code must be in place on all gas carriers of 500gt and upwards. fabric safety personnel certification	safety
9	What type of cargo would you normally carry in a ship fitted with independent type B tanks? LPG Chemicals Ethylene LNG	LNG
10	Which of these is not a hydrocarbon gas? Ethane Butane Methane Sulphur dioxide	Sulphur dioxide

Liquefied Gas Tankers. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which of these would you NOT normally use the reliquefaction plant for? To cool down cargo tanks before loading To reliquefy the cargo vapour during loading To transfer the cargo to another ship To keep the cargo at the required temperature and pressure during transport	To transfer the cargo to another ship
2	There are various IMO gas carrier codes. What determines which code the ship must comply with? The country of construction The engine power The year of construction The gross registered tonnage	The year of construction
3	What is the usual method of cargo tank pressure control used on LNG carriers? Venting to atmosphere Reliquefaction Do not need pressure control Burning the boil off in the ship`s boilers	Burning the boil off in the ship`s boilers
4	In a gas tanker, what should be your first action on hearing the emergency alarm? Phone the bridge to find out what`s happening Go to your emergency station If you can see the problem go to help Go to your lifeboat station	Go to your emergency station
5	On which type of cargo tank would you find a Bi-Metallic joint or STJ(Special Transition Joint)? Prismatic Type A Type C Gaz Transport membrane Kvaerner Moss Type B	Kvaerner Moss Type B
6	How would you identify "roll over" in a full or part full cargo tank? Rapid drop in pressure Rapid rise in temperature Rapid drop in temperature Rapid rise in pressure	Rapid rise in pressure
7	If someone was injured by a spillage of liquefied gas, where would you look initially for information on how to treat the injury? ICS cargo data sheet Ship`s emergency instructions Ship`s hospital Ship Captain`s Medical Guide	ICS cargo data sheet
8	Which of these is the correct sequence of operations prior to loading? Inspection Inerting Drying Cooling down Drying Inerting Inspection Cooling down Inspection Drying Inerting Cooling down Drying Inspection Inerting Cooling down	Inspection Drying Inerting Cooling down
9	Where would you look to find the properties and hazards of a gas carried on your ship? Ship`s chemicals register ICS cargo data sheet Code of safe working practices STCW Code	ICS cargo data sheet
10	If you wish to enter or leave a space that has an airlock, what does it mean if the warning light outside the airlock is lit? The space is not safe to enter The airlock`s other door is open and you must not try to enter until the light goes out The space is safe to enter The airlock`s other door is closed and it is safe to enter	The airlock`s other door is open and you must not try to enter until the light goes out

Liquefied Gas Tankers. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	How would you determine if a pump is working correctly i.e. pumping at the correct rate? Check the motor temperature Check the thickness of ice on the pipes Listen to the motor Check the motor amperage load on the switchboard	Check the motor amperage load on the switchboard
2	Prior to any cargo operations, what tests need to be carried out? Function tests of the automated equipment Testing of all the machinery to be used Testing of all alarms A full function test of all equipment and systems to be used	A full function test of all equipment and systems to be used
3	When ballasting or deballasting, it is of utmost importance that the ship is kept in a _____ condition at all times. stable laden sailing listed	stable
4	On a fully refrigerated gas tanker carrying liquid butane, how is the tank pressure controlled? By the relief valves By the reliquefaction plant By burning the vapour in the boilers It doesn`t need to be controlled	By the reliquefaction plant
5	When the inert gas system is not required for gas-freeing the cargo tanks and pipelines, how must it be isolated from the cargo system? Spade blanks in lines Single valve isolation Two valve isolation Spool piece removed and blanked	Spool piece removed and blanked
6	When finishing a discharge on an LPG carrier it is usual to throttle in the cargo pump discharge valve to reduce the NPSH requirement and facilitate stripping of the tank. When should this NOT be done? When using a booster pump When not using a booster pump When strippng the tanks prior to drydock When the tank pressures are low	When using a booster pump
7	You have finished discharging a cargo of Butane and wish to clear the lines to shore of liquid. How would you do this? Open the drain valve at the manifold and let the liquid drain out Use a fire hose on the lines to boil off the liquid Pressurize the lines with hot gas from the reliquefaction plant Wait for the liquid in the lines to boil off	Pressurize the lines with hot gas from the reliquefaction plant
8	On a gas tanker, a combustion type generator is producing inert gas. What oxygen content would you expect to see? 16% 20% 0.50% 10%	0.50%
9	Which one of these gases would not require a stenching agent adding? Butane Ammonia Ethane Propane	Ammonia
10	If there are no casualties involved, what is the first thing an emergency team should do when dealing with a gas fire on a gas tanker? Rig hoses to cool the surrounding area Set up the dry powder system ready to attack the fire Isolate the leak at it`s source Rig hoses to attack the fire	Isolate the leak at it`s source

Liquefied Gas Tankers. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	When gassing up, with which one of the following cargoes would you NOT use inert gas from a combustion type generator? LNG Ammonia Propane Butane	Ammonia
2	Which of the following gives an international standard for the design, construction and equipment of gas tankers? IMO Gas Carrier Codes Lloyds DNV ABS	IMO Gas Carrier Codes
3	What must you have before carrying out any hot work on a liquefied gas carrier? Permission from the Chief Engineer A permit to work Permission from head office Permission from a senior officer	A permit to work
4	Gases carried in tankers are usually either hydrocarbon or chemical. VCM (Vinyl Chloride Monomer) is a _____ gas. saturated hydrocarbon saturated chemical unsaturated hydrocarbon chemical	chemical
5	If all the pumps failed in a Kvaerner Moss type tank full of liquid LNG, how would you get the cargo out? Boil off the liquid Pressurize the tank to push the liquid out Use pumps in another tank Try to get the pumps out to repair them	Pressurize the tank to push the liquid out
6	If you wished to operate the CO2 smothering to extinguish a fire in a cargo space, what is the most important thing to check first? That there are no people in there That the ventilation is closed off That it will not cause a loss of electrical power That it will not lead to a spillage of cargo	That there are no people in there
7	On an LNG tanker, why would you carry out cargo tank spraying operations? To keep the tank pressures down To cool the tanks ready for loading As part of the gas freeing operations To use up the cargo left over after discharge	To cool the tanks ready for loading
8	What would you regard as the minimum allowable O2 content of a space you wish to enter? 21% 18% 19% 20%	21%
9	When would you enter a space to rescue someone using a BA escape set? If you could see there was a gas leak but only a small one If you considered the cargo as not toxic If you could see that they were not far from the entrance Never, as escape sets are only to be used to leave a space	Never, as escape sets are only to be used to leave a space
10	What type of cargo would you normally carry in a ship fitted with independent type B tanks? LPG Chemicals Ethylene LNG	LNG

Liquefied Gas Tankers. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	On a fully refrigerated gas tanker carrying liquid butane, how is the tank pressure controlled? By burning the vapour in the boilers It doesn`t need to be controlled By the relief valves By the reliquefaction plant	By the reliquefaction plant
2	What is the MAIN danger to be guarded against when discharging using a cargo heater with seawater as the heating medium? Overpressurizing of the gas side of the heater Freezing of the water side of the heater Overheating of the gas side of the heater Overpressurizing of the water side of the heater	Freezing of the water side of the heater
3	Where, in each monitored space, should the gas detector head be placed in a dedicated LNG tanker? At the top At the bottom In the centre(vertically) Any point in the space	At the top
4	Which one of these hazards does NOT apply to Methane? Danger of toxicity i.e.poisoning Danger of asphyxia Danger of frostbite Danger of explosion	Danger of toxicity i.e.poisoning
5	Where would you look to find information about how two different gases will react if mixed together? ICS data sheet Code of safe working practices IMO gas code Ship`s chemicals register	ICS data sheet
6	You are in charge of a rescue team searching a gas contaminated space. What would you do FIRST on finding an unconscious casualty? Put the casualty on a stretcher Check the casualty`s pulse Give oxygen to the casualty Get the casualty out as fast as possible	Give oxygen to the casualty
7	At what temperature(approximately) is non-pressurized LNG normally carried? -3C -43C -80C -160C	-160C
8	On an LPG tanker, you wish to enter a hold space that has not been inerted. It has been tested for hydrocarbons and found clear. What would your next step be? Inform the Bridge that you are about to enter the space Enter the space ensuring that you are carrying a personal O2 and HC alarm Enter the space with a personal O2 alarm Test the space for O2 content from outside	Inform the Bridge that you are about to enter the space
9	If you wished to calculate how much cargo was in a tank you would use the tank _____ table. calibration construction contents area	calibration
10	Why would an inhibitor be added to a liquefied gas cargo? To make it less flammable To make it less toxic To stabilise an unstable or reactive product To identify it more easily	To stabilise an unstable or reactive product

Ro-Ro, Passenger Ships. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	Prior to sailing, to whom must the details of passengers requiring special assistance in the event of emergency be passed? The Port Authority The Safety Officer The ship`s Doctor The Master	The Master
2	The ship`s Loading Manual contains details of the _____ number of crew required to work the ship under SOLAS regulations out of hours medical contact point radio frequencies on which to call the shore contact permitted deck loading	permitted deck loading
3	If dedicated lashing points are provided on a vehicle, how many lashings may each accommodate? The identification plate has the details Four One Two if reinforced	One
4	Communications regarding the opening of hull doors must be acknowledged by _____ a ship`s officer a competent person at least two crew the Master	the Master
5	Openings in the hull must only be activated by _____ at least two crew the Master a ship`s officer a competent person	a competent person
6	Closed Ro-Ro spaces must be SOLAS approved to carry flammable gases and liquids if the flash point is _____ 50 50 23 23	23
7	Times of opening or closing all hull doors must be recorded in the _____ Official Log Book Engine Room Log Book Deck Log Book Oil Record Book	Deck Log Book
8	During loading, a trailer marked as carrying dangerous goods is seen to be leaking. Which of the following actions is recommended? Seek further advice from the shipper Stow it separately and inform the shipper Send it ashore Stow it and advise the Master	Send it ashore
9	How many loading conditions should be used when checking the validity of the stability computer? 1 2 3 4	4
10	Water leakage detection systems are primarily intended to detect leaks from _____ the ballast pumping system cargo units and equipment hull doors pipelines	hull doors

Ro-Ro, Passenger Ships. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	A crewman reports feeling dizzy after time in a compartment. The correct action is first to _____ seal off the compartment and sound the general alarm seal off the compartment increase ventilation to the compartment test the compartment atmosphere	test the compartment atmosphere
2	Instructions for operating and lowering ramps are required to be _____ prominently displayed displayed with the fire and emergency plans displayed on the Bridge carried by the Safety Officer	prominently displayed
3	Ideally, securing lashings for vehicles should be connected on the vehicle to _____ the axle special securing points the chassis a point as high on vehicle as can be achieved	special securing points
4	During the transfer of fuel and ballast around the vessel significant stability effects may be caused by _____ excess trim racking panting free surface	free surface
5	Ro-R0/Passenger Ships - The IMO stability regulations require that the ship`s GM should never be less than _____ 0.05m 0.15m 0.25m 0.35m	0.15m
6	Consumption of liquid from the ship`s double bottom tanks during a voyage will _____ make the ship more stiff increase the ship`s displacement increase the KG decrease the KG	increase the KG
7	Prior to pumping fuel or ballast around the vessel, the location of tanks, pipelines and valves can be confirmed by reference to the _____ Oil Record Book General Arrangement Plan Ballast Control Plan Stability Booklet	General Arrangement Plan
8	Ro-Ro units should generally be stowed _____ with heaviest units forward with heaviest units aft fore and aft athwartships	fore and aft
9	Must passenger ship carry a rescue boat onboard? Yes, one No, lifeboats can be use as rescue boat. Yes, two Yes, one if the ship is under 500 brt. And two if the ship is over 500 brt.	Yes, one if the ship is under 500 brt. And two if the ship is over 500 brt.
10	How often shall it be conducted an abandon ship drill and fire drill onboard a passenger ship? Weekly of it the ship are in port. Weekly Bi-weekly (twice a month) Monthly	Weekly

Ro-Ro, Passenger Ships. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	During which time may watertight doors in watertight bulkheads in tweendeck cargo spaces be kept open in passenger ships? At any time if watched by an authorized person In ports only Daytime only During cargo handling only	In ports only
2	How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships? Weekly Daily Every two weeks Every month	Weekly
3	Where in a passenger ship is furniture, due to fire protection, to be kept to a minimum? (SOLAS II-2/34.6) In control stations In escape routes In stairways and corridors In service spaces	In stairways and corridors
4	Discharge of passenger vehicles should only commence when _____ the vessel is trimmed level liaison with the shore is established the fore and aft doors are open all engines of vehicles are running	liaison with the shore is established
5	How many lifejackets shall it be in a passenger cabin? Non. They will be handed out by the crew Same number as beds in the cabin Non. They will be handed out at the muster station Twice the number of beds in the cabin	Same number as beds in the cabin
6	Prior to use by vehicles, ramps must be _____ free of oil in sight by video cameras load tested before each use earthed	free of oil
7	Which international code are regulating what safety equipment a passenger ship must have onboard? MARPOL STCW IMO SOLAS	SOLAS
8	Ramps for wheelchairs should have a maximum slope of _____ 1:5 1:20 1:50 1:10	1:20
9	Prior to crew working in a compartment, it should be tested and found to have the following carbon monoxide PPM concentration _____ below 50 below 100 zero below 5	below 50
10	In which ships shall fire hoses be connected to hydrants in interior locations at all times? (SOLAS II-2/4.7.1) Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers Passenger ships carrying more than 12 passengers Passenger ships carrying more than 100 passengers Passenger ships engaged on short trips	Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers

Ro-Ro, Passenger Ships. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	All passenger ships are divided into vertical There is one fireteam in each zone Vertical zones are separated with firedoors which will be closed automatically when the firealarm start. This is firezones which can be divided from eachother with firedoors. If a fire start in one zone, all firedoors in front and aft of the fire will be closed from the bridge to stop the smoke and fire from spreading. All vertical zones are separated with waterthight doors, which will be closed in the case of a grounding, etc.	This is firezones which can be divided from eachother with firedoors. If a fire start in one zone, all firedoors in front and aft of the fire will be closed from the bridge to stop the smoke and fire from spreading.
2	What is the purpose of watertight doors? They will be closed during a fire to prevent the smoke and fire to spread to other parts of the ship. They will be closed from the bridge or locally in case of damage on the ships hull, and taking in water. They are doors in engine area which will be closed during navigation in shallow waters. They will be closed if the ship get a damage on the ships hull, and taking in water. It will prevent the water to fill the whole deck. In case of fire they can also be used to stop the fire and smoke from diverge.	They will be closed if the ship get a damage on the ships hull, and taking in water. It will prevent the water to fill the whole deck. In case of fire they can also be used to stop the fire and smoke from diverge.
3	Hydrocarbon vapours are detected in a compartment being worked. The correct first action is _____ increase ventilation sound the general alarm and muster the crew with BA stop operations until normal atmosphere is regained test the compartment atmosphere	stop operations until normal atmosphere is regained
4	Which of the following would you not find in the ship`s stability book? Hydrostatic tables A maximum KG table Details of the inclining experiment A shell expansion diagram	A shell expansion diagram
5	Must you be certified to be a lifeboat-commander? No Yes, you must attend a one week course at a approved course center. Yes, you must attend to a course held by certified personnel, and then be certified by national authorities (NMD, USCG, etc) No, the only thing you need is one hour instruction from a deck officer.	Yes, you must attend to a course held by certified personnel, and then be certified by national authorities (NMD, USCG, etc)
6	Moving vehicles being loaded or discharged should have their speed regulated by _____ traffic lights active crew participation blocking of routes speed signs	active crew participation
7	Transverse lashings for vehicles should make an angle with the deck of _____ 60 10 20 30	30
8	Which of the following is NOT required in public spaces with regard to emergency information for passengers? Emergency telephone arrangements Signs giving direction to muster points Doors and exits clearly marked An efficient PA system	Emergency telephone arrangements
9	Prior to sailing, the names and gender of all persons aboard must be passed to _____ the insurance company the catering department the Customs Authorities the SAR authority	the SAR authority
10	At what latest time shall doors, sidescuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and coaling ports and other openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage? Before leaving the port Before entering open waters Before leaving the pilot station Before leaving the berth	Before leaving the port

Ro-Ro, Passenger Ships. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	Is there any requirements regarding crew All crew working directly with passengers must be able to communicate on the language spoken by the majority of the passenger. All crew working directly with passengers must be able to communicate on the language spoken by the majority of the passenger and english. Yes, all crew must be able to communicate on the language spoken by the majority of the passengers, or demands set by the company. All crew must be able to speak english	Yes, all crew must be able to communicate on the language spoken by the majority of the passengers, or demands set by the company.
2	On passenger ferry the passengers are not normally allowed to be on the car-deck during sailing. What is the reason for this rule? If the car deck are empty, it will be easier for the crew to locate all passengers in case of an emergency In case of an emergency situation, the car deck can be difficulty to find the way around, and cars can shift position caused by ships movement. The ships movement can make the cars slide/move and a person can be trapped between two cars. To prevent damage and burglary to the cars.	In case of an emergency situation, the car deck can be difficulty to find the way around, and cars can shift position caused by ships movement.
3	What do international and national maritime authorities say about passenger list? No requirement to have passenger list onboard as long as shore terminal/office have one, and can send it to the ship on request. All passengers onboard must be registered with name, age and cabin number. Optional for each company if they want to have passenger and crew list. All personnel onboard (crew and passengers) must be registered to keep a track of number of people onboard.	All personnel onboard (crew and passengers) must be registered to keep a track of number of people onboard.
4	What kind of information must be posted in all passenger cabins? The route to musterstation, and how to put on lifejacket. The route to musterstation, how to put on lifejacket and different emergency signals used onboard the ship. Where the restaurant is located The route to open deck	The route to musterstation, how to put on lifejacket and different emergency signals used onboard the ship.
5	Passenger ship engaged in international voyages must conduct a muster for all passengers. What is the time limit for this exercise? No time limit 24 houres 4 houres Before departure	24 houres
6	If the general/fire alarm are sounding, and evacuation is required. What is the best way to ensure that all passengers are aware of the situation? The cabin attendant take stand at the muster stations to check of all passengers in his section. If somebody is missing, report to their superior. Alarm signal and public announcement system will be effectively, including head count at muster point. Using public announcement system to inform about situation. Inform passenger to report to designated area for head count. Public announcement system to be used for informing. The cabin attendant should proceed to their cabin section, and search all cabins. If the area is inaccessible report to their superior.	Public announcement system to be used for informing. The cabin attendant should proceed to their cabin section, and search all cabins. If the area is inaccessible report to their superior.
7	If some of the passengers are disabled, i.e. using wheelcair, cane, blind etc. What precausion should the crew take? They must be placed in cabins on the same level as the muster station. Locate then in large cabins, to ease their stay. All passengers that will require some form for assistance in case of evacuation, etc. must be registered, so there can be sent crew to assist them if needed. Passenger with some form for disability must travel with accompany, and live in same cabin or next door.	All passengers that will require some form for assistance in case of evacuation, etc. must be registered, so there can be sent crew to assist them if needed.
8	On most passenger ferries there is no requirements regarding passenger muster exercises. What is the most effective ways of informing embarking passengers. Information movie running in cabins with TV, and in public lounges. Safety video and folders in tax free shops Information from crew. Information about muster station on boarding card, poster in cabins, safety video running continuous.	Information about muster station on boarding card, poster in cabins, safety video running continuous.
9	How often are abandon ship drill and fire drill required to be held on passenger ships, according to SOLAS? Once a month Every third week Weekly Every second week	Weekly
10	Worn or damaged seals that cannot be replaced immediately should be inspected _____ twice daily once each voyage constantly daily	constantly

Chemical Tankers. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	The list of cargoes capable of being carried on board a particular chemical tanker is called _____ The Certificate of Fitness The IOPP Certificate The Chemical List The Cargo List	The Certificate of Fitness
2	Cargoes with high melting points that may solidify require _____ special additives cooling heating agitation	heating
3	Temperature control of cargoes means _____ monitoring the cargo temperature applying heat in a controlled manner allowing the cargo to adopt ambient temperatures allowing the cargo to heat naturally	applying heat in a controlled manner
4	Ballast water may be loaded into tanks previously containing NLS that have been _____ properly cleaned stripped discharged certificated to carry ballast	properly cleaned
5	In addition to fireman`s outfits, how many BA sets should be carried in a chemical tanker? 4 1 2 3	3
6	When loading toxic cargo, measurement should always be _____ open restricted closed uncontrolled	closed
7	Cargo hoses should be tested _____ every year every 3 years every 2 years every 5 years	every year
8	Nitrogen is used instead of inert gas in order to _____ provide better protection against explosion prevent contamination of the cargo kill micro-organisms aid ease of use	prevent contamination of the cargo
9	All Noxious Liquid Substances (NLS) are listed in the IBC Code chapter _____ 13 15 16 17	17
10	Where is the correct discharge for residues and washings containing NLS situated? Above the waterline Below the waterline At the waterline At the forward end of the vessel	Below the waterline

Chemical Tankers. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the material used most commonly for cargo piping, valves and pumps? Cast Iron Plastic Steel Stainless steel	Stainless steel
2	The term PADDING means protecting cargo with a blanket of inert gas, such as _____ carbon dioxide nitrogen oxygen argon	nitrogen
3	Care should be taken when disconnecting cargo pipes and lines because _____ the pipes may be brittle residues may remain the pipes are delicate the pipes may be electrically charged	residues may remain
4	Chemical tankers are built with either "gravity" or "pressure" type cargo tanks. A "gravity" tank is one having a design pressure at the top of the tank of: 0.1 bar? 1.7 bar? 2.7 bar? 0.7 bar?	0.7 bar?
5	Which of the following would NOT normally be used for heating chemical cargoes? Thermal Oils Electricity Steam Water	Electricity
6	An important publication required to be approved by the Flag State and carried on board every chemical tanker is called? _____ The Operational Manual The Procedures and Arrangements Manual The Arrangements Manual The Procedures Manual	The Procedures and Arrangements Manual
7	Which cargo operations are to be recorded in the Cargo Record Book? All petroleum cargo operations All bunker operations All cargo operations All cargo operations involving NLS	All cargo operations involving NLS
8	In the event of cargo spillage, which of the following would be informed first? The ship owner The Port Authority The Clean Up contractor The agent	The Port Authority
9	Category A substances will often require cleaning before sailing from the discharge port. This procedure is called a _____ cold wash prewash hot wash A-wash	hot wash
10	How far from land must the vessel be before residues of NLS Category B C & D may be discharged into the sea? 30 miles 12 miles 50 miles 25 miles	12 miles

Chemical Tankers. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	Bulk Chemical Codes apply to _____ all tankers all chemical tankers all bulk carriers all ships	all chemical tankers
2	The transportation of chemical cargoes is governed internationally by which MARPOL Annex? II V I II	I
3	Personal escape sets are to be provided for _____ all cabin berths and additional sets for working spaces all crewmembers all cabins all persons expected on board	all cabin berths and additional sets for working spaces
4	Where is the correct discharge for residues and washings containing NLS situated? Below the waterline At the waterline At the forward end of the vessel Above the waterline	Below the waterline
5	The term solubility refers to the ability to mix with _____ oil air other liquids water	other liquids
6	Prior to unloading, all pumps, valves and associated instrumentation should be _____ cleaned overhauled function tested sighted	function tested
7	Inhibitors are used to stop the product from _____ self reacting boiling vaporising melting	self reacting
8	On chemical tankers, the term REACTIVITY refers to complications concerning _____ pollution of the environment temperature control health of personnel the cargo	the cargo
9	What does the term pH value of a chemical cargo refer to? The colour of a product The temperature of a product The acidity or alkalinity of a product The viscosity of a product	The acidity or alkalinity of a product
10	If a cargo is of low flash point it is said to be _____ poisonous toxic non-flammable flammable	flammable

Chemical Tankers. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the minimum distance from the forward division of the accommodation for accesses to the accommodation? 2 metres 3 metres 4 metres 1 metre	3 metres
2	In the event of cargo spillage cargo operations should be _____ continued slowed down suspended speeded up	slowed down
3	Tank cleaning will require the vessel`s officers to consult _____ The Certificate of Fitness The Ballast Water Management plan The Garbage Management Plan The P&A Manual	The P&A Manual
4	In a Type 2 chemical tanker the tank`s capacity is limited to _____ 1000 cubic metres 2000 cubic metres 3000 cubic metres 4000 cubic metres	3000 cubic metres
5	To help establish safe levels of toxicity, which equipment is often used? Avometers Oxygen analysers Draeger tubes Explosimeters	Draeger tubes
6	Ullage is the distance from the underside of the deck to _____ the liquid surface the bottom of the tank the reference point the sounding pipe	the liquid surface
7	Open cargo venting should only be used for cargoes that do not present a hazard when inhaled and have a flash point of above _____ 50 40 30 60	60
8	Cargo samples in general are analysed in order to _____ test for temperature determine acidity control quality see what it looks like	control quality
9	Methanol is a common _____ vapour acid alkaline alcohol	alcohol
10	The category of chemical posing the greatest threat of harm to the marine environment is Category _____ B C D A	A

Chemical Tankers. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	The frequency of pressure testing ashore of BA sets should as a minimum be every _____ 5 Years 6 Years 10 Years 15 Years	5 Years
2	Inhibited or polymerizable cargoes should not be carried adjacent to _____ ambient cargoes cooled cargoes any cargoes heated cargoes	heated cargoes
3	If information concerning a cargo is not available it should be _____ loaded with caution not loaded loaded loaded till information becomes available	not loaded
4	Cargo Record Books must be retained on board for _____ 4 years 1 year 2 years 3 years	3 years
5	Permanent or Portable ventilation systems may be fitted to _____ pumprooms cargo tanks accommodation the Engine Room	cargo tanks
6	As well as chemical cargoes, what may chemical tankers also be used to transport? Bulk solids Waste products Nuclear waste Other liquid products	Other liquid products
7	Ingestion means poisoning by _____ swallowing absorption skin contact breathing	swallowing
8	Before cargo operations begin, the responsible person on board and the terminal representative will complete a _____ ship/shore operation plan meeting agreement ship details plan ship/shore safety check list	ship/shore safety check list
9	The flammable range of different chemicals may be _____ the same often different always the same always different	often different
10	What is the term for filling tanks and lines with nitrogen, or similar liquid or gas, to prevent cargo contact with the atmosphere? Covering Padding Blanketing Inerting	Padding

Chemical Tankers. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	The physical data of a liquid chemical can be found on _____ material safety data Sheets ICS Cargo Data Sheets all of these the information supplied by the Manufacturer	all of these
2	Who should tank cleaning operations be supervised by? A shore representative A responsible officer A deck officer A pumpman	A responsible officer
3	Who is responsible on board for cargo operations? The Master The Chief Officer The Master or responsible officer appointed by the Master The officer of the watch	The Master or responsible officer appointed by the Master
4	Procedures in the event of an emergency should be understood by _____ all crewmembers all deck officers all ratings all ratings	all crewmembers
5	Who has the responsibility for issuing certificates following survey? The Classification Society The Master of the vessel Port State Control The Flag State	The Flag State
6	A cargo tank should not be entered unless _____ an Enclosed Space Entry Permit has been issued the Chief Mate`s verbal permission has been obtained a permit to work has been issued the Master has advised that the atmosphere is safe	an Enclosed Space Entry Permit has been issued
7	The bursting pressure of new cargo hoses is required to be the designed working pressure multiplied by _____ 4 5 6 2	5
8	What should cargo sample lockers be constructed of? Wood Neoprene Stainless steel Fully resistant material	Fully resistant material
9	What are generally the main cargo pumps fitted on board chemical tankers? Screw Pumps Piston pumps Gear pumps Centrifugal pumps	Centrifugal pumps
10	What is the MARPOL 73/78 Convention about? Hours of Work Pollution prevention Safety equipment Fire fighting equipment	Pollution prevention

Chemical Tankers. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	Before cargo operations start the Master should establish proper liaison between the ship and _____ the port authority the flag state administration the terminal the harbour control	the terminal
2	Submerged pumps are commonly driven _____ mechanically hydraulically electrically by steam	hydraulically
3	In chemical tankers, to avoid having a deteriorating effect on cargoes and also to avoid cargoes attacking them, steam heating coil are generally made of: Mild steel? Stainless steel? Copper? Cuprous alloys?	Stainless steel?
4	Epoxy coatings in tanks, which have been stressed beyond their chemical resistance during the carriage of strong solvents, tend to soften (you test for this with your nails or with standardised test pencils). If you encounter this condition you would: Inform the Owner that the coating has been rendered useless? Heat up the coating and try to speed up the re-hardening process? Do nothing - the softness of the coating is not of any consequence? Give the coating time to "weather out" the trapped solvents using good ventilation, and recover it`s hardness again, prior loading the next cargo?	Give the coating time to "weather out" the trapped solvents using good ventilation, and recover it`s hardness again, prior loading the next cargo?
5	Chemical tankers are built with either "gravity" or "pressure" type cargo tanks. A "gravity" tank is one having a design pressure at the top of the tank of: 2.7 bar? 0.7 bar? 0.1 bar? 1.7 bar?	0.7 bar?
6	In the chemical trade the acceptable means of cargo line segregation in case of two non-compatible products is: By double valve segregation? By double valve segregation using sluice valves only? By a single blank flange? By double blank flanges with a drain between them?	By double blank flanges with a drain between them?
7	The category of cargo requiring the most efficient stripping arrangement is Category _____ D A B C	A
8	To accommodate expansion of piping on the deck of a chemical tanker the following are fitted: Expansion glands? Flanges on the pipes at frequent intervals? Natural bends at intervals? Extra strong pipes that can withstand the forces of expansion?	Natural bends at intervals?
9	Sometimes, in order to improve suction to the pumps when discharging "light" or "gassing" cargoes, the tanks are pressurised by admission of inert gas under overpressure from the inert gas fans. In this respect one must remember that tanks are generally dimensioned to withstand a vapour pressure of: 2500 mm wg? 1200 mm wg? 3200 mm wg? 4000 mm wg?	2500 mm wg?
10	Stainless steel tanks are sometimes required to be "passivated" especially after tank surface repairs have been carried out and aggressive cargoes are to be loaded. "Passivation" normally consists of: Applying 12 - 15% nitric acid on tank surfaces, either with a brush or spray; then washing off after 10 - 20 minutes using copious amounts of fresh water? Spraying concentrated hydrofluoric acids in the tank and then wiping it off? Grinding off any corrosion spot with a grinding disc of about "80 grain"? Cleaning the tank by application of caustic soda on all surfaces, then washing it off?	Applying 12 - 15% nitric acid on tank surfaces, either with a brush or spray; then washing off after 10 - 20 minutes using copious amounts of fresh water?

Oil Tankers Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	A swing check valve is used in a pipeline to _____ relieve excessive pressure on the line. allow flow in one direction only. maintain a preset pressure on the line. closely regulate the amount of flow.	allow flow in one direction only.
2	Which of these conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal pump? Heavy fluid in the flow stream. Vapour pockets formed in the suction flow stream. Rough casing of volute surfaces. Worn wearing rings.	Vapour pockets formed in the suction flow stream.
3	Which of these valves will be cycled from fully open to fully closed when the handle is turned 90 A butterfly valve. A rising stem gate valve. A globe stop valve. A check valve.	A butterfly valve.
4	Which of the valves listed should be used either in the fully opened or the fully closed position? Any check valve. Any needle valve. A gate valve. A globe valve.	A gate valve.
5	The handle of a butterfly valve must be _____ forty-five degrees to the axis of flow when the valve is fully open. either at 0 parallel to the flow when in the fully open position. parallel to the axis of flow when the valve is closed.	parallel to the flow when in the fully open position.
6	On tank vessels, which of these valve types is most commonly used in conjunction with hydraulically actuated controls? Globe valves. Butterfly valves. Non-return valves. Gate valves.	Butterfly valves.
7	The purpose of remotely controlled measuring of tank levels are to measure: Height from liquid surface to top stringers in the tank Height of liquid in the tank Height of bottom girders in the tank Height from bottom shell to top stringers in the tank	Height of liquid in the tank
8	Inert gas is produced on board of ships by _____ the main boilers. the auxiliary boilers. an Inert Gas Generator. any of these	the main boilers the auxiliary boilers an Inert Gas Generator.
9	The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber and the _____ diffuser. siphon. injector. compressor.	diffuser.
10	If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head becomes air bound, your FIRST response should be to _____ tighten the packing. reprime the pump. vent the casing. close the discharge.	vent the casing.

Oil Tankers Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	Clean ballast is normally _____ ballast water loaded in tanks used only for that purpose. ballast water loaded into cargo tanks which have been crude oil washed. ballast water loaded into cargo tanks which have been crude oil and water washed. ballast water loaded directly into a cargo tank after discharge.	ballast water loaded into cargo tanks which have been crude oil and water washed.
2	Steam heating coils are provided in some cargo tanks in order to _____ reduce the volume of the cargo within the tank increase the volume of the cargo within the tank heat cargoes which have a high pour point provide warm water when tank cleaning	heat cargoes which have a high pour point
3	In the vicinity of an electrical storm tank cleaning _____ may continue if the tank pressure remains at atmospheric. may continue providing the tanks are inerted. may continue providing the tank venting system is isolated. must be stopped.	must be stopped.
4	On tankers, the crude oil washing check list states (amongst other things) that during crude oil washing operations _____ the inert gas oxygen content must be below 4.5 % in order to start or continue washing. the quality of the inert gas must be frequently checked and recorded. the inert gas system should be in operation. the inert gas pressure is to be recorded prior to starting washing.	the quality of the inert gas must be frequently checked and recorded.
5	Loading through the pumproom is _____ permissible. normally the approved way to load slop tanks. done to increase the loading rate. to be avoided.	to be avoided.
6	Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves _____ operate with little or no pressure drop when fully opened. are more easily repaired. cannot be used for service requiring infrequent operation. are more suitable for throttling.	operate with little or no pressure drop when fully opened.
7	Clean ballast may be discharged _____ by pumping through the bottom sea chest. by pumping directly through any overboard discharge line. by pumping only through a discharge line which is connected to an operational oil content monitor. only by gravity.	by pumping only through a discharge line which is connected to an operational oil content monitor.
8	When loading by gravity, the last valve to be opened should be _____ the shore tank valve. the ship`s drop line valve. the ship`s manifold valve. for the cargo tank to be loaded into.	the shore tank valve.
9	One of the requirements for crude oil washing on tankers is that an inert gas system be fitted. According to regulations an inert gas system is required for which spaces? Every cargo tank, slop tank, cofferdam and ramp space. Every cargo tank. Every cargo tank and slop tank. Every cargo tank, slop tank and cofferdam.	Every cargo tank and slop tank.
10	When starting a positive displacement pump, the discharge valve must be _____ fully closed. cracked open. half open. fully open.	fully open.

Oil Tankers. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	You have orders to load a cargo of API gravity 10.0. The gravity of this cargo is _____ heavier than fresh water lighter than fresh water the same as fresh water the same as sea water	the same as fresh water
2	Before arriving in a port where it is intended to crude oil wash, the tank washing system should be pressure tested to _____ 125% of the normal working pressure. the normal working pressure. 150 % of the normal working pressure. 75 % of the normal working pressure.	the normal working pressure.
3	When entering port for loading the cargo, the tank oxygen level should be _____ or below. 8% 11% 5% 3%	8%
4	Which pair of devices are fitted on deck to prevent inert gas or cargo vapours from flowing back into the engine room? The non-return valve, the deck seal. The bulkhead valve, the deck seal. The spectacle flange, the Bernoulli tube. The bulkhead valve, the non-return valve.	The non-return valve, the deck seal.
5	Which of these statements explains how a vacuum is created by an eductor? A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid. A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle. A propeller drawing a fluid through a venturi nozzle. Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.	A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle.
6	A "venturi" tube would normally be found in _____ an eductor. a reciprocating pump. a globe valve. a centrifugal pump.	an eductor.
7	During cargo operations, a wind blowing may _____ form eddies containing petroleum vapour lower the temperature of the oil cargo increase air pressure in a cargo tank decrease air pressure in a cargo tank	form eddies containing petroleum vapour
8	Where is the inert gas tapped which is led to the oxygen analyser? At the inert gas line from scrubber to inert gas fan (suction line). At the inert gas fan discharge manometer connection. At the inert gas discharge line to the bulkhead valve. At the boiler uptake.	At the inert gas discharge line to the bulkhead valve.
9	What is the purpose of the inert gas scrubber tower ? To remove soot particles and to saturate the gas with water. To cool the hot gases and remove the soot particles. To remove sulphur combustion components from the gases. To cool the inert gases produced by the boiler by running the gases through water screens.	To cool the hot gases and remove the soot particles.
10	The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tankers is to _____ provide increase in cargo discharge pressure comply with double-hull pollution regulations allow sufficient oxygen in the tanks to sustain life prevent outside air from entering the tanks	prevent outside air from entering the tanks

Oil Tankers. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	In theory, a cargo pump should be able to draw up a liquid to a height equaling atmospheric pressure. This would be approximately _____ 15 metres 30 metres 5 metres 10 metres	10 metres
2	When cargo operations are taking place at an oil terminal, what must ship engine notice be? Engine at immediate notice Engine at short notice Minor repairs can be carried out No notice needs to be specified	Engine at immediate notice
3	One of the requirements for Crude Oil Washing on tankers is that an inert gas system is fitted. According to the regulations, an inert gas system is required for which spaces? Every cargo tank, slop tank and cofferdam Every cargo tank, slop tank, cofferdam and ramp space Every cargo tank Every cargo tank and slop tank	Every cargo tank and slop tank
4	Oxygen deficiency will begin to cause problems to personnel if it falls below _____ 12% by volume 21% by volume 19% by volume 16% by volume	16% by volume
5	An inert gas system should be used to _____ reduce the oxygen content in tanks blow through cargo lines prevent fires in pumprooms discharge liquid cargo from tanks	reduce the oxygen content in tanks
6	When you measure the level of oil in a cargo tank, at the same time you should measure the _____ oxygen level ullage temperature pressure	temperature
7	Prior to starting the cargo pumps for discharge of cargo it must be ensured that _____ all ballast tanks are inerted. the pump room piping is inerted. the inert gas plant is running on stand-by. the inert gas plant is ready for start-up.	the inert gas plant is running on stand-by.
8	A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the _____ small size of the impeller. lack of moving parts. ease at which the wearing rings may be changed. discharge end being smaller than the suction end.	lack of moving parts.
9	Which of these valves permits flow in only one direction? A check valve. A plug cock. A gate valve. A globe valve.	A check valve.
10	Earthing and bonding minimize the dangers arising from _____ tank over-pressurisation fire oil spills accumulation of electrostatic charges	accumulation of electrostatic charges

Oil Tankers. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which of these statements is correct concerning the starting of centrifugal pumps? They should always be started with the sealing line valves closed. They should always be started with the discharge valve closed. They should always be started with the discharge valve opened. A priming pump is always required to flood the impeller suction.	They should always be started with the discharge valve closed.
2	On tankers using hydraulic tank valve actuation, which of these valve types has the highest tendency to develop leaks relative to the valve, requiring more frequent maintenance? Check valves. Gate valves. Butterfly valves. Globe valves.	Butterfly valves.
3	The static suction head of a pump is the _____ amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below atmospheric pressure. distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump. distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump. force necessary to overcome frictional losses in the pump and piping.	distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump.
4	If a bonding cable is not connected by the terminal when joining a manifold for cargo operations _____ you should not commence cargo operations you should use an International Shore connection you should use an oxygen analyzer at all times you should insert an insulating flange or single length of non-conducting hose	you should insert an insulating flange or single length of non-conducting hose
5	A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the _____ water seal pipe is plugged. pump is not primed. seal ring is improperly located. impeller is flooded.	pump is not primed.
6	Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of the liquid entering a pump? Total head. Suction head. Pump head. Discharge head.	Suction head.
7	On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge? Finger rings. Mechanical seals. Shaft sleeves. Clipper seals.	Mechanical seals.
8	The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed is to _____ use a clamp-on ammeter and compare the readings with past records. closely observe the pump discharge temperature. close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure. momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure.	close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure.
9	In spaces declared gas-free, further gas may be released _____ when the temperature of the sea water rises after loose scale and sludge are disturbed when water is loaded into the cargo tank when oxygen levels become reduced	after loose scale and sludge are disturbed
10	When operating with a negative suction head, which of these types of pumps will require priming? Gear. Reciprocating. Centrifugal. Rotary.	Centrifugal.

Oil Tankers. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	Name the three isolating devices fitted between the inert gas bulkhead valve and the cargo tank valves ? The non-return valve, the Bernoulli tube and the manual discharge valve. The non-return valve, the deck seal and the manual discharge valve. The spectacle flange, the deck seal and the water seal. The spectacle flange, the Bernoulli tube and the non-return valve.	The non-return valve, the deck seal and the manual discharge valve.
2	Which of these statements represents the advantage of rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps? Rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid, while this does not hold true for a reciprocating pump. The high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger volume of fluid per unit time than the reciprocating pump. Rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pumps of the same weight. Rotary pumps occupy only one-half the space of reciprocating pumps.	Rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pumps of the same weight.
3	During cargo operations or whenever dangerous vapour may be present on deck _____ all accommodation doors and windows should be opened to allow vapour to dissipate keep closed all ports and windows which are facing the cargo area immediately cease all cargo operations hoist flag Bravo	keep closed all ports and windows which are facing the cargo area
4	Responsibility for the provision of hoses to a ship`s manifold at an oil terminal rests with the _____ officer on deck terminal oil company Master of the vessel	terminal
5	In the event of a failure in the inert gas plant during discharge _____ the discharge must be immediately halted. the discharge rate must be reduced until the plant is repaired. the venting system can be set to maintain atmospheric pressure and the discharge can continue. the inert gas plant must be operational within one hour of failure and the discharge may continue for this time.	the discharge must be immediately halted.
6	Deficient oxygen content inside a confined space can be detected with _____ litmus paper a hydrometer a combustible gas indicator an oxy-warn meter	an oxy-warn meter
7	If at sea the inert gas low pressure alarm is activated, it may be necessary to conduct _____ cargo transfer operations. cargo heating operations. inert gas topping up operations. recirculating operations.	inert gas topping up operations.
8	Which safety device is fitted on the deck inert gas line to monitor the supply condition of the inert gas? The inert gas high temperature alarm The inert gas low flow alarm The inert gas reverse flow alarm The inert gas low pressure alarm	The inert gas low pressure alarm
9	The main inert gas distribution line on deck is provided with a _____ flow meter. gauge glass to monitor the presence of liquid. portable oxygen content analyser. Pressure / Vacuum breaker.	Pressure / Vacuum breaker.
10	It is a rule that the inert gas supply valves to the cargo tanks must have provision for _____ securing in a closed position. drainage of the inert gas. fitting blind or spectacle flanges. easy removal and inspection.	securing in a closed position.

Oil Tankers. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	If a combination carrier is engaged in the carriage of cargoes other than oil, the main inert gas supply line on deck (with the exception of the inert gas supply to the slop tanks) must be _____ secured by padlocking the inert gas main supply valve. removed. isolated by fitting a blind flange. drained and washed.	isolated by fitting a blind flange.
2	What protective devices are fitted to the seawater supply to the deck seal, ensuring an effective water barrier in the deck seal and preventing gas backflow to the engine room? A booster aggregate for the sea water, deck seal high temperature alarm, high water level/overflow alarm. Deck seal pump failure, low deck seal water pressure, low deck seal water flow, low level of deck seal Aggregate failure, high deck seal temperature, low deck seal flow, low deck seal level. High water level / overflow alarm, high deck seal temperature, low deck seal level, low deck seal pressure	Deck seal pump failure, low deck seal water pressure, low deck seal water flow, low level of deck seal
3	As long as a tanker is not in Gas Free condition, which pump must remain running at all times? The Cargo Condenser Pump The Emergency Fire Pump The Scrubber Pump The Deck Seal Pump	The Deck Seal Pump
4	An overdose of toxic petroleum vapour affects your sense of smell by _____ improving it temporarily improving it permanently reducing it temporarily taking it away completely	reducing it temporarily
5	Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from going overboard by _____ plugging the scuppers placing wooden plugs in the vents closing sighting ports on tank lids plugging sounding pipes	plugging the scuppers
6	Oxygen reduction is particularly likely in cargo tanks where _____ the tanks have been empty for a long period of time the vessel is operating in warm weather conditions the tanks have just been cleaned inert gas or steam have just been used	inert gas or steam have just been used
7	Volatile petroleum oil has a flash point _____ below 80 below 15 below 30 below 60	below 60
8	Which pair of devices is fitted on deck to prevent inert gas or cargo vapours from flowing back into the engine room? The spectacle flange, the Bernoulli tube The bulkhead valve, the non-return valve The non-return valve, the deck seal The bulkhead valve, the deck seal	The non-return valve, the deck seal
9	A cargo tank which has been gas-freed can be inerted by introducing inert gas through a process known as _____ displacement evaporation dilution precipitation	displacement
10	At what pressures are P/V valves usually set to open in relation to atmospheric pressure? 1 PSI above / 1 PSI below? 3 PSI above / 4 PSI below? P/V valves are not required. 2 PSI above / 0,5 PSI below?	2 PSI above / 0,5 PSI below?

Oil Tankers. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the purpose of a deck seal? To avoid backflow of gas to the engine? A watertank for fire fighting purpose? To regulate the fluegas pressure? No particular purpose?	To avoid backflow of gas to the engine?
2	What is the purpose of the "scrubber"? To mix fluegas and air? To improve the O2 content of the inertgas and particulate soot? To cool, clean and add sulfur dioxide to the fluegas? To cool, remove sulfur dioxide and particulate soot from the fluegas?	To cool, remove sulfur dioxide and particulate soot from the fluegas?
3	Gas generators in inert gas systems shall have alarms to indicate faulty conditions. Which of the following conditions do not require alarm according to present regulations? (SOLAS II-2/62.19.2) Insufficient air supply Insufficient fuel oil supply Failure of power supply to the generator Failure of power supply to the automatic control system	Insufficient air supply
4	A space that has been declared `gas-free` _____ must be kept empty can only be said to be gas-free at the time of the test must be filled with water if no cargo is to be loaded soon would be expected to remain gas-free until the tank is next filled.	can only be said to be gas-free at the time of the test
5	The proportion of nitrogen in inert gas is approximately _____ 56% by volume 77% by volume 82% by volume 51% by volume.	77% by volume
6	The lowest temperature at which oil will continue to flow if it is cooled is called the _____ flash point liquidisation point pour point melting point.	pour point
7	The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off a sufficient quantity of gas that it will form an expol;osive mixture with air, is called the _____ boiling point flash point melting point ignition point.	flash point
8	When oil temperature rises, the volume _____ varies reduces increases remains the same.	increases
9	All liquids can change into vapour and the process is called _____ emulsification condensation evaporation liquidisation.	evaporation
10	The process of removing the last remaining liquid content from a cargo tank is called _____ vacuuming stripping cleaning dredging.	stripping

Oil Tankers. Test 9

#	Question	Right answers
1	Before inert gas is introduced into a cargo tank, it should be established that the oxygen content of the gas is not more than _____ 8% by volume 10% by volume 2% by volume 5% by volume	5% by volume
2	What is the purpose of the inert gas Scrubber Tower? To remove soot particles and to saturate the gas with water. To cool the flue gases and remove most of the sulphur and soot particles. To remove sulphur combustion components from the gases. To desuperheat the inert gases produced by the boiler by running the gases through water screens.	To cool the flue gases and remove most of the sulphur and soot particles.
3	Prior to starting the cargo pumps for discharge of a tanker cargo, it must be ensured that _____ the inert gas plant is ready for start-up. all ballast tanks are inerted. the pump room piping is inerted. the inert gas plant is running on stand-by.	the inert gas plant is running on stand-by.
4	The purpose of pressure/vacuum valves is to _____ enable load/discharge of oil without opening sighting ports measure pressure/suction levels in cargo tanks provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by variations in temperature provide an audible alarm in the event of pressure build-up	provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by variations in temperature
5	Inert gas - how is sea water supplied to the deck seal? Through the deck seal pump fitted in the engine room Through the main seawater pumps or through the cargo condenser pump Through the deck fire line Through a seawater aggregate pump fitted on the cargo deck	Through the deck seal pump fitted in the engine room
6	Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _____ cavitation. electrolysis. abrasion. corrosion.	cavitation.
7	SOLAS 1974 requires the oxygen content in the Inert Gas Main to be not more than _____ by volume. 6% 5% 8% 4%	5%
8	Whilst discharging cargo, if the oxygen content within the inert gas main is above the SOLAS 1974 recommendations and the Engine Room inform you that they cannot reduce it, what would your actions be? Call the master and continue with cargo operations. Stop all cargo operations. Call the chief engineer and continue with cargo operations. Continue with cargo operations.	Stop all cargo operations.
9	When discharging a double hulled tanker, the discharge plan must take into account the need to avoid _____ crude oil washing and discharging simultaneously. excessive free surface. a discharge rate that is too slow. a discharge rate that is too fast.	excessive free surface.
10	A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming _____ due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller. to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure. in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line. primarily to lubricate the shaft seals.	due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller.

Oil Tankers. Test 10

#	Question	Right answers
1	The correct position for taking a "bottom" sample is _____ as close to the bottom of the tank as possible. from the surface of the tank floor. six inches (15cm) from the surface of the tank floor. two feet (60cm) from the surface of the tank floor.	from the surface of the tank floor.
2	Inert gas- how can you tell if the demister units in the scrubber tower need to be cleaned? By the inert gas suction pressure By the differential pressure measured by U-tube. By the colour change in the tell-tale glass By the tell-tale overflow pipe	By the differential pressure measured by U-tube.
3	Your vessel is loading liquid oil cargo and oil begins to flow out of a tank vent. Your first action should be to _____ close the manifold valve open a valve to another cargo tank set out drip pans, sawdust and oil dispersant carry out emergency stop procedures	carry out emergency stop procedures
4	Which of the groups contains the three isolating devices fitted between the inert gas bulkhead valve and the cargo tank valves? The non-return valve, the Bernoulli tube and the manual discharge valve. The non-return valve, the deck seal and the manual discharge valve The spectacle flange, the deck seal and the water seal The spectacle flange, the Bernoulli tube and the non-return valve	The non-return valve, the deck seal and the manual discharge valve
5	How can you be assured that the inert gas analyser will give the correct reading of the oxygen content of the inert gas? The instrument is calibrated with nitrogen holding 3 % oxygen (grey colour test bottle) The instrument is calibrated every year in the presence of the Classification Surveyor. A zero setting knob activates a "Wheatstone Bridge" with a calibrated resistor in order to compare. The instrument is calibrated with fresh air every 3 months and should indicate 21 % oxygen in fresh air	The instrument is calibrated with nitrogen holding 3 % oxygen (grey colour test bottle)
6	Where is the inert gas tapped which is led to the Oxygen Analyser? At the inert gas discharge line to the bulkhead valve At the boiler uptake At the inert gas line from scrubber to inert gas fan (suction line) At the inert gas fan discharge manometer connection	At the inert gas discharge line to the bulkhead valve
7	Which type of valves are fitted on the discharge side of the inert gas fan blowers? Manual gate valves Automatic butterfly valves Manual butterfly valves Automatic gate valves	Automatic butterfly valves
8	Which type of valves are fitted as suction valves on the inert gas blower fans? Manually controlled gate valves Automatic controlled butterfly valves Manually controlled butterfly valves Automatic controlled gate valves	Manually controlled butterfly valves
9	How is fresh air supply ensured in cargo tanks via the inert gas supply line? By opening the suction cover on the inert gas supply fans and stopping the boiler By removing the fresh air intake blank on the inert gas fan suction line, ensuring that the boiler uptake valve is closed By stopping the boiler firing so that only fresh air is supplied by the boiler uptake By keeping the boiler uptake valves closed and opening the inspection cover on the scrubber tower	By removing the fresh air intake blank on the inert gas fan suction line, ensuring that the boiler uptake valve is closed
10	For the purposes of tank cleaning, oily water deposits are discharged into a _____ ballast tank bunker tank alternative cargo tank slop tank	slop tank

Oil Tankers. Test 11

#	Question	Right answers
1	How is the inert gas pressure controlled in the inert gas distribution line and relevant cargo tanks during discharge ? By throttling of the boiler uptake valve By adjusting the cargo discharging rate By adjusting the trim of the vessel By an automatic pressure control system	By an automatic pressure control system
2	On tankers, the Crude Oil Washing Check List states (among other things) that during Crude Oil Washing operations _____ the inert gas pressure is to be recorded prior to starting washing. the inert gas oxygen content must be below 4.5 % in order to start or continue washing. the quality of the inert gas must be frequently checked and recorded. the inert gas system should be in operation.	the quality of the inert gas must be frequently checked and recorded.
3	How is the quality and supply of inert gas checked and recorded? Using a manometer and thermometer fitted in the main inert gas supply line Using a portable oxygen analyser and U-tube, with an officer standing-by all the time In the engine control room at the main inert gas console, where an engineer should be standing-by all the time Using the oxygen content and IG pressure recorder located in the cargo control room	Using the oxygen content and IG pressure recorder located in the cargo control room
4	There is a requirement to maintain an Oil Record Book in order that _____ a record is held of the amounts of oil which are loaded/discharged an inspection can be made by shore authorities in the event of oil spills or other pollution accidents disputes can be settled between terminal and vessel if there is a disparity in cargo figures the Bill of Lading requirements can be checked and satisfied	an inspection can be made by shore authorities in the event of oil spills or other pollution accidents
5	Oil tanker design rules require that petroleum cargo tanks are separated from accommodation by _____ a ballast tank reinforced bulkheads the pumproom a cofferdam	a cofferdam
6	In the Inert Gas system, - what types of Deck Seal units are there? The circular and the square type The open and the closed type The dry and the wet type The single and the combined type	The dry and the wet type
7	What is the advantage of having a steam turbine driven inert gas fan on a tanker fitted with an auxiliary steam plant? A steam turbine fan can give higher speeds A steam turbine driven fan creates initial load on the boiler facilitating inert gas production A steam turbine fan is less costly to maintain and more easy to operate. A steam driven turbine fan does not easily trip when there is a malfunction on the inert gas plant	A steam turbine driven fan creates initial load on the boiler facilitating inert gas production
8	Inert gas blowers are _____ paddle type low speed blowers. reciprocating type blower units. low speed type centrifugal fans. turbine type centrifugal blower fans.	turbine type centrifugal blower fans.
9	What is the principle behind producing inert gas on board ship? By using the carbon dioxide in the exhaust gas to act as a fire extinguisher By the combination of water and sulphur dioxide produced by the combustion of heavy fuel Using exhaust gases of heavy fuel oil combustion which are smothering agents at high temperatures By the combustion of fuel oil to produce exhaust gases with an oxygen content of less than 5%	By the combustion of fuel oil to produce exhaust gases with an oxygen content of less than 5%
10	What is the condition of the inert gas as it is produced by the boilers or inert gas generator? Dirty and saturated Superheated and black or greyish in colour Free of oxygen and clean Hot and containing soot particles	Hot and containing soot particles

Oil Tankers. Test 12

#	Question	Right answers
1	How is cooling / cleaning water supplied to the inert gas scrubber tower? By the deck seal sea water pump By the main sea water pumps By the cargo condenser pump By the scrubber sea water pump	By the scrubber sea water pump
2	Which group of basic protection devices are fitted on the scrubber tower`s sea cooling water supply system? Alarms for high water level, high flow, high water pressure and high sea water temperature. Alarms for high water level, pump failure, high sea water temperature and low gas pressure. Alarms for high water level, low flow, low water pressure and pump failure. Alarms for high water level, low water level, pump failure and low gas pressure.	Alarms for high water level, low flow, low water pressure and pump failure.
3	What ensures that no sea water droplets are carried with the inert gas while the gas is washed and cooled in the scrubber tower? The gas dryer unit The regenerator The demister units The centrifugal traps	The demister units
4	Inert gas is _____ heavier than hydrocarbon gas. variable in density dependent on oxygen content. lighter than hydrocarbon gas. the same density as hydrocarbon gas.	lighter than hydrocarbon gas.
5	What are duty officers provided with to check the quality of inert gas ? A breathing apparatus to enter the tank A portable oxygen analyser A tank scope An explosimeter	A portable oxygen analyser
6	The master onboard a VLCC of 280,000 dwt has received a telex from the cargo terminal asking if the SPM-moorings are according to the OCIMF standard. What fitting must you have in order to comply? Two tongue-type/hinged bowstoppers with separate closed fairleads. Capacity 200 tons. One smith-type bracket with centre bow fairlead. capacity 150 tons. Two tongue-type/hinged bowstopper with centre bow closed fairlead. Capacity 200 tons. One tongue-type/hinged bowstopper centre bow closed fairlead. Capacity 200 tons.	Two tongue-type/hinged bowstoppers with separate closed fairleads. Capacity 200 tons.
7	In an inert gas system audible and visible alarms shall be provided to indicate faulty conditions in the installation. Which of the following conditions do not activate the alarms? (SOLAS II-2/62.19.1) High air pressure in water seal High gas temperature High gas pressure High water level in the flue gas scrubber	High air pressure in water seal
8	Which of the following requirements to inert gas system for oil cargo tanks do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS II-2/62.2) Inert empty cargo tanks to a level at which combustion cannot be supported Eliminate the need for air to enter the tank during normal operation (gas-freeing excepted) Maintaining the atmosphere in any part of the tank within an oxygen content not exceeding 8% by volume Keep a low pressure in the tanks at all times at sea and in port (periods of gas-freeing excepted)	Keep a low pressure in the tanks at all times at sea and in port (periods of gas-freeing excepted)
9	Which of the following requirements to fixed foam systems for cargo deck area on tankers do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS II-2/61) The number of foam applicators shall not be less than four Application throw in still air condition shall not be less than 15 m The capacity of any foam applicator shall not be less than 400 l per minute Sufficient foam concentrate shall be supplied to ensure at least one hour of foam generation	Sufficient foam concentrate shall be supplied to ensure at least one hour of foam generation
10	What does ODME mean? Oil Detection Monitoring Equipment. Oil Detection Measure Equipment. Over board Detecting Measure Equipment. Oil Detecting - Master Evaluating.	Oil Detection Monitoring Equipment.

Oil Tankers. Test 13

#	Question	Right answers
1	To supervise the pressure conditions in the cargo tanks, a special device is fitted for this purpose. What is it called? Pressure/vacuum valve. Tank atmosphere control valve. Supervising valve. Negative/positive pressure valve.	Pressure/vacuum valve.
2	According to the regulations in force, one of the following stripping devices is a demand on an oil tanker. Which one? Ejector. Vacuum strip. Not any particular. Stripping pump.	Stripping pump.
3	What is the purpose with a expansion coupling? Make the pipes capable to move back and forth inside the coupling. To connect two pipes together. To avoid the pipe expansion problems. Used in case a pipe is too short.	Make the pipes capable to move back and forth inside the coupling.
4	If a vessel is fitted with That the vessel is only able to load on gravity. A vessel without ordinary bottom lines where the cargo flows from tank to tank through bulkhead valves. That the cargo is free flowing in all tanks at all times. The vessel is not equipped with own discharging equipment.	A vessel without ordinary bottom lines where the cargo flows from tank to tank through bulkhead valves.
5	Is slop tanks included in the total cargo capacity? Only on segregated ballast tankers. Yes it is. No, it is not. Only on clean ballast tankers.	Yes it is.
6	One of the following is NOT an alarm on an inert gas plant, which one? Scrubber high water level alarm Deck seal low water alarm Low oxygen alarm Low pressure alarm.	Low oxygen alarm
7	The most common valves used on an oil tanker are: Gate valves, globe valves and butterfly valves. Ball valves and discharging valves. Globe valves, suction valves and draining valves. Butterfly valves and stripping valves.	Gate valves, globe valves and butterfly valves.
8	What is the required diameter of the crude oil washing lines, according to the ship To maintain the flow. No special requirement to the line dimension. To maintain the required pressure and flow to the machine in use. To maintain the pressure.	To maintain the required pressure and flow to the machine in use.
9	Which of these pumps is NOT a positive displacement pump? Gear. Rotary. Centrifugal. Reciprocating.	Centrifugal.
10	What is the purpose of the deck water seal? To adjust the inert gas flow. To wash the inert gas a second time. To supervise the inert gas pressure. To prevent combustion gases to flow back and enter the burner.	To prevent combustion gases to flow back and enter the burner.

Oil Tankers. Test 14

#	Question	Right answers
1	On a flue gas plant, the flue gas enters a washing tower where the gas is washed to remove soot, ashes and to separate undesired gases. What is the name of this Cleaning tower. Inert gas washer. Scrubber. The washing tower.	Scrubber.
2	What are consequences of an high oxygen content alarm sound during normal operation? The pressure control valve will automatically close, the ventilation valve will open The plant is shut down The pressure control valve and the flue gas isolating valves will automatically close The alarm in Chief Officer cabin will sound loud and clear	The pressure control valve will automatically close, the ventilation valve will open
3	What is the name of the device used for supervising all the ballast water to be pumped over board? Ballast Handling Monitor.(BHM). Ballast Supervising Monitor. (BSM). Oil Detection Monitoring Equipment.(ODME). Ballast Monitor. (BM).	Oil Detection Monitoring Equipment.(ODME).
4	When there are two slop tanks on board, what are the correct names of these slop tanks? Primary and secondary slop tank. Slop tank 1 and slop tank 2. Port and starboard slop tank. Two last tanks to load.	Primary and secondary slop tank.
5	On the bottom lines there are cross over valves which make it possible to flow cargo from one bottom line to another. When loading more than one grade of cargo, what is the requirement regarding these cross over valves? One valve segregation. Three valves segregation. Two valves segregation. No special requirement.	Two valves segregation.
6	What kind of fixed extinguishing plant is installed to use on an oil tanker Water spray plant. CO2 plant. Powder plant. Foam plant.	CO2 plant.
7	What is the main quencher for an oil tanker? Powder. Carbonic acid. Foam. Water.	Foam.
8	To discharge the last amount of cargo ashore, the stripping pump through the small diameter line is used. Where does this small diameter line come from in the pump room and where is the line ending at the manifold? From the stripping pump From the stripping pump From the cargo pump From the stripping pump	From the stripping pump
9	How can we maintain necessary NPSH? By increasing pump rpm By control of liquid temperature By reducing vapour pressure By control of liquid flow	By control of liquid flow
10	What types of deck seal units are there ? The single and the combined type. The circular and the square type. The open and the closed type. The dry and the wet type.	The dry and the wet type.

Oil Tankers. Test 15

#	Question	Right answers
1	How is sea water supplied to the deck seal? Through the deck fire line. Through a seawater aggregate pump fitted on the cargo deck. Through the deck seal pump fitted in the engine room. Through the main seawater pumps or through the cargo condenser pump.	Through the deck seal pump fitted in the engine room.
2	Before entry into a cargo tank which has contained a petroleum product _____ the tank must be tested for sufficient oxygen adjacent tanks must be empty the tank must be filled with fresh water and emptied static electricity must be measured	the tank must be tested for sufficient oxygen
3	It is a rule that the inert gas supply valves to the cargo tanks must have provision for _____ fitting blind or spectacle flanges. easy removal and inspection. securing in a closed position. drainage of the inert gas.	securing in a closed position.
4	Which of the following is compulsory on ships fitted with inert gas? An Entry Permit is required each time a person enters the pump room for any reason. No Smoking is allowed in any place at all on the vessel. Three (3) breathing apparatus sets with spare bottles and a refilling compressor is fitted in the forecastle. Notice is to be placed at entrances as required "NO ENTRANCE WITHOUT PERMISSION OF RESPONSIBLE PERSON (C/O) , INERT GAS !!!!"	Notice is to be placed at entrances as required "NO ENTRANCE WITHOUT PERMISSION OF RESPONSIBLE PERSON (C/O) , INERT GAS !!!!"
5	The main inert gas distribution line on deck is provided with a _____ gauge glass to monitor the presence of liquid. portable oxygen content analyzer. Pressure / Vacuum breaker. flow meter.	Pressure / Vacuum breaker.
6	What is the name of the line which is used to strip the last amounts of cargo ashore? Displacement line. Stand by line Small diameter line. Cargo deposits stripping line.	Small diameter line.
7	Which inert gas systems use only gases from the ship`s main or auxiliary boilers? Nitrogen generator Combination - inert systems The inert gas generator The flue gas plant	The flue gas plant
8	The "small diameter line" on a crude oil carrier goes from the pumproom to _____ The ship`s side, above the waterline The sloptanks The drip-tray under the cargo manifold, port and starboard side The shore-side of the cargo manifold valves, port and starboard side	The shore-side of the cargo manifold valves, port and starboard side
9	What is the pumping capacity depending on? Suction pressure Liquid viscosity Total pressure head Liquid temperature	Total pressure head
10	If we reduce the head to appr. 75 % of normal, what will the power consumption of the pump be? 60 % 82 % 70 % 100 %	60 %

Oil Tankers. Test 16

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the highest permitted back-pressure for the Cargo Pump when it is tested? 1.25 times the maximum working pressure 5.0 bar 18.0 bar 25.0 bar	1.25 times the maximum working pressure
2	Are all pumps and blowers shut down during the shut-down procedure? Fresh water cooling of deck seal running No, the sea water pumps are still running Yes, all is shut down No, the sea water pumps and the blowers are still running	No, the sea water pumps are still running
3	During air venting/gas freeing of tanks the blowers use air from? The scrubber The ventilation line The engine room The blower air inlet	The blower air inlet
4	The use of steam driven ejectors for ventilation of cargo tanks having flammable vapours in them is not recommended now-a-days due to: It is rather expensive to waste steam? Steam at high velocities may generate static electricity which might cause incentive sparks? It being not a very effective system for tank ventilation? It might cause burns to unwary personnel?	Steam at high velocities may generate static electricity which might cause incentive sparks?
5	What is the purpose of the decanting line between two sloptanks when you are waterwashing a cargo tank? Make it possible to avoid build-up of static electricity during waterwashing Make it possible to fill the secondary sloptank, if the primary sloptank fills up Make it possible to retain most of the recovered oil in the primary sloptank, while cleaner part of the water will flow into the secondary sloptank, where it can be re-used as wash-water Enable both the primary and secondary sloptank to be filled without using the main cargo lines	Make it possible to retain most of the recovered oil in the primary sloptank, while cleaner part of the water will flow into the secondary sloptank, where it can be re-used as wash-water
6	What is the purpose of a "part flow display system" installed on some oil tankers ? The Part Flow System makes it possible to observe the discharge visually for oil content, on older tankers with discharge below the waterline The Part Flow System makes it possible to observe the discharge visually for oil content, even in darkness The Part Flow System makes it possible to discharge dirty ballast below the water line on older tankers The Part Flow System makes it possible to measure the oil content, even if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment is not working	The Part Flow System makes it possible to observe the discharge visually for oil content, on older tankers with discharge below the waterline
7	Bulwarks are generally not permitted in the cargo tanks areas because: They stiffen the tank deck too much and do not allow flexibility? They tend to contain heavy vapours inboard during cargo operations? They restrict the outflow of water during heavy weather? They are an unnecessary extra weight structure-wise?	They tend to contain heavy vapours inboard during cargo operations?
8	Operation of eductor- what is correct? According to the specific eductor`s performance curve. Min 12 bar drive pressure Min 8 bar drive pressure and high back pressure Continuous checking suction pressure	According to the specific eductor`s performance curve.
9	Why is the inlet to the sloptank often directed towards the bulkhead (see the illustration) ? To reduce the settling time To avoid too much agitation of the oily water in the tank None of the mentioned To avoid build-up of static electricity, which may cause explosion	To avoid build-up of static electricity, which may cause explosion
10	At which level will the slop-system high level alarm sound ? 98 % 97% 96% 90%	98 %

Fuel, Ballast Operations. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	During cargo and/or bunkering-operations you have all scuppers closed. It starts raining and there is a slight oilsheen on the water on deck. What to do? Drain the water easy out through the scuppers Open the scuppers during raining and when the deck is empty, plug the scuppers again Let it pass over the waterboard Drain the water into the sloptank	Drain the water into the sloptank
2	If you have an overflow to deck, and the result is pollution to the environment, what should you do? A lot of the rules are to strict, and I am using my own judgement to cope with the situation that have arisen Immediately notify the captain so he can notify the proper authorities, so the pollution can be dealt with by professionals Hose down the deck to get rid of the oil Using strong chemicals to try to cope with the pollution by yourself to avoid costs and fine for the vessel	Immediately notify the captain so he can notify the proper authorities, so the pollution can be dealt with by professionals
3	What will cause the oil/water interface in this centrifugal separator to move outwards from its correct position? An increase in the temperature of the oil. An decrease in the temperature of the oil. An increase in the oil flow rate. A decrease in the viscosity of the oil.	An decrease in the temperature of the oil.
4	Your ship receives HFO with high density from the last bunkering. What will You do to obtain the best purifying result? This make no difference for the result. Preheat the HFO before the purifier. According to the nomograms You select a gravity disc with larger hole diameter. You start the purifier with a smaller disc.	According to the nomograms You select a gravity disc with larger hole diameter.
5	Concerning the designing and construction of Machinery Space Oily Residue Tanks (Sludge Tanks) what requirements, besides capacity, need to be met ? They must be capable of being pumped overboard through a 15ppm separating system. They must have cleaning facilities and arrangements to discharge to reception facilities. They must have steaming out and pumping out connections fitted. All engine room overflows and leakage tanks must drain into them	They must have cleaning facilities and arrangements to discharge to reception facilities.
6	If when in port there is an urgent need to pump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do ? Issue strict instructions that the bilges must only be discharged to a shore tank or barge facility. Instruct the watchkeeper to pump bilges to the dirty oil tank or sludge tank and note in logbook Authorise pumping the bilges over the side via the oily water separator. Instruct the watchkeeper to lower the bilges only during night time.	Issue strict instructions that the bilges must only be discharged to a shore tank or barge facility.
7	How many bolts do you have to have in the blinds on the bunker lines when not in use? One bolt in every hole Not necessary to blank off 2 bolts 4 bolts	One bolt in every hole
8	After bunkering when all the fuel oil tanks have been topped off, which of the listed procedures should be followed next ? The tanks should be marked with a bull stamp on the manifold filling valve. All of these. The pressure vacuum relief valves should be reset. The tanks should be sounded to make sure the levels are not rising.	The tanks should be sounded to make sure the levels are not rising.
9	A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and another can empty this tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are used together, how long would it take to empty it ? 3 hours 4/9 hours 2 and 1/4 hours 2 hours	2 and 1/4 hours
10	You are going to do deballasting of a double bottom tank. The pump is of centrifugal type and mounted above tank level. You are having problems getting the pump to take suction. What can you do to solve the problem? Feed the pump from the sea water inlet pipe. Disconect the manometer pipe to get rid of an air pocket . Get somebody to do the job for you. Repeat start and stop of the pump until it gets suction.	Feed the pump from the sea water inlet pipe.

Fuel, Ballast Operations. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	When you notice oil on the water near your vessel during bunkering, you should first? Call the chief engineer Notify the terminal/barge Stop bunkering Call the chief officer	Stop bunkering
2	If you have taken full bunker, what is important to have in mind? Pump out a small quantity from each tank at the first opportunity , to avoid having an overflow to deck when you put heating to the tank Monitor the remote gauges all the time Be sure that all goosenecks are closed to avoid overflow to deck when heating is put to the tank Avoid putting heating to the tanks	Pump out a small quantity from each tank at the first opportunity , to avoid having an overflow to deck when you put heating to the tank
3	What is the lowest allowed flashpoint for fuel oil used in the ship`s main engine? (SOLAS II-2/14.1.1) 60 43 78 88	60
4	As a part of the preparation for bunkering, we are to empty the fuel oil overflow tank before the bunkering. Why? In case of an overfilling. To avoid mixing new and old bunker oil Check that there are no leaks from bunker tanks, into overflow tank. Check that there are no leaks from valve manifold, into overflow tank	In case of an overfilling.
5	Why is it necessary to keep cargo and bunkerlines blanked off while not in use? To avoid unexpected oilspill To be sure that air is not coming into the tanks To be sure you don`t mix cargo To avoid contamination of cargo	To avoid unexpected oilspill
6	Before you close the main gatevalve at the ships bunkering manifold, you should notify: Your engineer at the valve manifold in the engineroom at the receiving vessel The bunkeroil company representative The deck officer on duty at the receiving vessel The officer in charge at the barge or the foreman in charge if it is at a shore facility	The officer in charge at the barge or the foreman in charge if it is at a shore facility
7	You are in charge of the bunkering, and the rate of flow is 350 tons an hour, you are bunkering in the night time, and you are bunkering into 6 different tanks at the same time. After a while, you are confused, and feel that you have lost track of the situation. What do you do? Reducing the rate of flow to gain time Open other tanks to relieve the situation Stop bunkering, and establish facts, before bunkering is resumed Prepare yourself and the crew for an overflow on deck	Stop bunkering, and establish facts, before bunkering is resumed
8	To avoid overbunkering and oil spill, it is very important that we keep a close monitoring of the bunkering progress, and this is done by sounding and calculations, the most reliable way is: Take ullage soundings in the tanks from deck Calculate time and flow, to find out how much oil is received A combination of ullage soundings and readings from the remote gauges The remote gauge system will provide us with the necessary information	A combination of ullage soundings and readings from the remote gauges
9	When you are connected up to the barge/shore facility and ready to start, who is giving the order to start pumping? The barge captain or shore facility foreman The pumpman on the barge or shore facility The engine officer in charge of bunkering on the receiving vessel The receiving vessel`s captain	The engine officer in charge of bunkering on the receiving vessel
10	To ensure a safe bunkering operation, and minimize the possibility for overbunkering and oil spill, we need a reliable communication system during the bunkering. How will you act, if your telephone connection goes dead while you are in charge of the bunkering, and the bunkering goes with a rate of 350 tons per hour? Get hold of walkie-talkies and put them into use Use a crewmember as a messenger between yourself on the manifold, and the engineer on the valvecontrol in the engine room Stop the bunkering until safe communications are established Call the electrician, and get him to repair the telephone while the bunkering goes on	Stop the bunkering until safe communications are established

Fuel, Ballast Operations. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	To avoid overbunkering and/or oil spill, preparation has to be done, and a check list made, to ensure that nothing has been forgotten. Which point on this list do you consider as most important (one answer only)? Open blank flanges on bunkering manifold in good time before bunkering barge arrives If you are taking bunker on the port side of the vessel, check that the starboard manifold is closed and blanked off Connect a water hose to the water on deck line, so an oil spill can be hosed quickly away if it come on deck Open all plugs in sounding pipes in good time before bunkering starts	If you are taking bunker on the port side of the vessel, check that the starboard manifold is closed and blanked off
2	When you are going to take bunker oil, it is important to know what space is available in your tanks, and to do a safe bunker operation. What will you prefer? Base available space on an average calculation of the weekly soundings since last bunkering Do a sounding on the tanks where the remaining fuel on board are located Do a complete sounding of all bunker tanks Base available spaces in tanks on the accounting of used fuel in the log-book	Do a complete sounding of all bunker tanks
3	What do you have to ensure when pumping from double bottom tanks to day- and settling tanks? That the pump has correct suction from the settling tank. That the pump is running continuously without noise. That the day tank is never left half empty when relieved from watchkeeping duties. That the pump is stopped in time to avoid overflowing.	That the pump is stopped in time to avoid overflowing.
4	Written information must be available each time a ship carries out bunkering operations inclusive the titles. This information includes the names of the persons engaged in bunkering operations. Which persons ? The chief engineer, the duty engineer and the duty officer. The responsible person in charge, the duty engineer, the engineer in charge of bunkering and the stand-by team on deck. The responsible person in charge, the engineer officer in charge of bunkering in the engine room and the person(s) assigned on deck. The chief engineer, the engineer officer in charge in the engine room and the petty officer on deck.	The responsible person in charge, the engineer officer in charge of bunkering in the engine room and the person(s) assigned on deck.
5	During UMS rounds, a duty engineer notices that the fuel oil overflow observation glass is full of oil. Should he: Call a motorman and have him sound the FO overflow tank periodically during the night. None of the listed alternatives. Stop all F.O. transfers immediately, and inform the CE. Make a sounding of the F.O. overflow tank and decide if there is enough capacity to leave it until the following morning.	Stop all F.O. transfers immediately, and inform the CE.
6	For ships not fitted with a sludge burning incinerator, the sludge tank capacity shall be directly proportional to _____ the number of purifiers fitted on board times the maximum range of the ship. the size of the vessel. the total horse power (or kWatt) generated in the engine room. the amount of fuel purified for daily consumption times the maximum period between voyage ports.	the amount of fuel purified for daily consumption times the maximum period between voyage ports.
7	Written information must be available each time bunkering operations are carried out. This should include information about reporting oil spills and provide contact details for which of these organisations? I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII I, III, IV, V, VIII, IX III, IV, V, VI, VII, IX II, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX	II, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX
8	Written information must be available each time a ship carries out bunkering operations. This information must include the following _____ the procedures for topping off tanks and the bunker slow down rate. the bunkering rates, procedures for topping off tanks and the level at which bunker tanks are to be closed. the specific gravity of the oil and the level at which bunker tanks are to be closed. the ventilation and overflow system of each tank and the bunker rate in tons per hour.	the bunkering rates, procedures for topping off tanks and the level at which bunker tanks are to be closed.
9	Every ship above 400 tons gross shall be provided with tank(s) of adequate capacity to receive oily residues or sludges such as those resulting from _____ heavy fuel oil purification leakages, lantern and scavenge spaces leakages and drainages from engines. lubricating purification and crankcase leakages from machinery and stern tube leakages. diesel oil leakages from purification, main and auxiliary engine fuel leakages. All oil leakages in the engine room inclusive of these.	All oil leakages in the engine room inclusive of these.
10	What to do if Your ship receive HFO with high density, from the last bunkering, to obtain the best purifying result? Increase the speed of the purifier (RPM). According to the nomograms You select a gravity disc with larger hole diameter. You start the purifier with a smaller disc. This make no difference for the result.	According to the nomograms You select a gravity disc with larger hole diameter.

Engine Performance. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	The main engine is running steady with exhaust gas temperature approximately 350 +/- 30 +/- 10 +/- 80 +/- 50	+/- 50
2	What is the reason to charge air pressure drops? Nozzle ring of turbocharger fouled or partially choked Fuel pump timing changed. Air filter to turbocharger fouled or damaged. Charge air cooler fouled on waterside	Air filter to turbocharger fouled or damaged.
3	Too high exhaust temperature in one cylinder becomes because of: Scavenge ports dirty. Speed governor defective. Compression pressure too low. Nozzle ring of turbocharger foule	Scavenge ports dirty.
4	The main engine is running steady. What is the normal shut down pressure for "Lub. oil inlet to camshaft"? 0,7 Bar 1,5 Bar 0,2 Bar 0,5 Bar	1,5 Bar
5	The main engine is running steady. What is the normal slow down/shutdown temperature for "Fresh cooling water outlet cylinder"? 80 105 95 85	95
6	The charge air pressure is reduced with 0,2 bar. What is the result of that? The cylinder cooling water flow becomes too high. The turbochargers cooling water flow becomes to high. The performance of the engine is reduced noticeably. The performance of the engine is nearly the same.	The performance of the engine is reduced noticeably.
7	The main engine is running steady. What is the normal slow down temperature for scavenge air boxes "Fire alarm"? 120 50 40 130	120
8	Too low exhaust temperature in one cylinder becomes because of: Any of the others. Injection valve opening pressure is too high. Injection valve opening pressure is too low. Charge air pressure is too high.	Injection valve opening pressure is too high.
9	Too high exhaust temperature in one cylinder becomes because of: Too low admission on fuel injection pump. The amount of cylinder lubricating oil feed to the cylinder is too small. Poor cylinder condition Leakage in the inlet valves.	Poor cylinder condition
10	The turbocharger (constant pressure) is making "whoofing" noises. What might be the cause? One or more leaking exhaust-valve. Heavy seas from behind Strong current against A faulty turbocharger bearing	Heavy seas from behind

Engine Performance. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	Too high exhaust temperature in one cylinder becomes because of: Faulty turbo charger. The inlet- and exhaust valve tappet clearance is off adjustment. Injection valve opening pressure is too high. Clogged nozzle holes in the injection valve.	The inlet- and exhaust valve tappet clearance is off adjustment.
2	Too high exhaust temperature in one cylinder becomes because of: Charge air temperature is too high. Too much lubricating oil in the cylinder. Injection valve opening pressure is too low. Water leakage in the cylinder.	Injection valve opening pressure is too low.
3	One cylinder fails, what is the probably cause to that? Exhaust valve leakage. Low charging air pressure. Injection pump failure. Injection valve wearing.	Injection pump failure.
4	The exhaust gas is too dark because of: Some cylinders is overloaded Inlet or exhaust valves are leaking Faulty fuel injection pumps or valves Any of the others.	Any of the others.
5	The exhaust gas temperature is too high in all cylinders because of: Fuel oil quality High wear rate in the injection pump The camshaft is worn. Insufficient cooling of the main bearings.	Fuel oil quality
6	The main engine is running steady: What is the normal slow down/alarm pressure for "Fresh cooling water across engine"? 0,8 Bar 1,2 Bar 0,2 Bar 0,5 Bar	0,2 Bar
7	The blower air delivery is not sufficient. What is the cause? Air temperature in engine room too high Dirty scavenge duct. Clogged air inlet filter Cooling water temperature too high	Clogged air inlet filter
8	Your indicator diagram from one of the main engine cylinders is shown. What kind of steps do you think is necessary to rectify the failure? Clean air cooler and turbocharger air cooler Adjust fuel pump lead only during operation Increase fuel pump setting. Check fuel injector valve, fuel injection timing, fuel pump suction valve and fuel pump lead	Check fuel injector valve, fuel injection timing, fuel pump suction valve and fuel pump lead
9	Too low exhaust temperature in one cylinder becomes because of: Too low admission on the fuel injection pump. Any of the others. Faulty fuel injection pump. Water leakage in the cylinder.	Any of the others.
10	The timing of the engine is delayed. The exhaust temperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger? Decreased turbocharger revolutions Surging of the turbocharger Higher air and gas temperature after turbocharger Increased turbocharger revolutions	Increased turbocharger revolutions

Engine Performance. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	The exhaust gas temperature is too high in all cylinders because of: Faulty fuel oil supply Clogged exhaust gas system. Water in the fuel. Worn or broken piston rings.	Clogged exhaust gas system.
2	You are onboard a vessel with a 6 cylinder main engine. During emergency running with one cylinder out of operation the engine load must be reduced to: 70 % of MCR 50 % of MCR Engine can not be run. 90 % of MCR	70 % of MCR
3	Your indicator diagram is as shown. What kind of steps do you think are necessary to rectify the failure? Check if fuel injection valve is correctly by adjusted. Check that you have correctly viscosity/fuel preheating. Replace the fuel valve. Check if fuel injection is too early or fuel pump lead too large	Check if fuel injection is too early or fuel pump lead too large
4	Too high exhaust temperature in one cylinder becomes because of High temperature in the turbocharger. Faulty fuel oil supply. Fuel pump timing changed. High wear rate in the injection pump.	Fuel pump timing changed.
5	The main engine is running steady. What is the normal slow down temperature for the main bearing metal "Oil outlet temperature"? 60 85 95 70	70
6	The exhaust gas temperature is too high in all cylinders because of: Lubricating oil temperature is too high. Any of the others. Charge air temperature is too high. Water in a cylinder.	Charge air temperature is too high.
7	The engine RPM drops because of: Water in a cylinder. Injection valve opening pressure is too low. Reduced cooling water flow. Clogged turbocharger filters.	Clogged turbocharger filters.
8	The main engine is running steady. What is the normal shut down pressure for "Lub.oil inlet to main bearings"? 1,0 Bar 0,5 Bar 0,2 Bar 2,0 Bar	1,0 Bar
9	Which of the following statements is correct A smaller sump volume will mean more dirt will be going into the lubricating oil The dispersing additives in lubricating oil, break up the contaminants in even smaller particles and keep them in suspension According to Stokes Law, particles does not affect separation Additives in oil assist the separator to remove water	The dispersing additives in lubricating oil, break up the contaminants in even smaller particles and keep them in suspension
10	We have a problem with surging in the turbocharger. Which of the following could be the cause? Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring. Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side Worn out bearings on the turbocharger The lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning	Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side

Engine Performance. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	The main engine is running steady. What is the normal slow down temperature for the main engine thrust bearing segment? 60 55 95 75	75
2	The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with unmanned engine. Could this be caused by: The viscosity of the fuel is to high We have favorable winds and current Poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves. The current and wind are holding the vessel back	The current and wind are holding the vessel back
3	The main engine is running steady. What is the normal shut down temperature for the main engine thrust bearing segment? 70 65 100 85	85
4	What do you understand by the term "Maximum Rating" of an engine? The piston speed and revolutions per minute cannot safely be increased. All of the mentioned alternatives The maximum possible percentage of oil being burned effectively in the cylinder volume available. The stresses in the component parts of the engine generally, for the mechanical and thermal conditions prevailing, have attained the highest safe level for continuous working.	The maximum possible percentage of oil being burned effectively in the cylinder volume available.
5	Spray painting has been carried out in the engine room while the engine was running, and the turbocharger was not protected. This could be the cause of one of the following: Scavenging air pressure is higher than normal The revolution of the turbocharger lower than normal. Exhaust gas temperatures are higher than normal The revolutions on the turbocharger are higher than normal	Exhaust gas temperatures are higher than normal
6	The engine RPM drops because of: Leaking exhaust valves. Fuel oil pipes or filters are clogged. Bad fuel oil quality. High lubricating oil temperature.	Fuel oil pipes or filters are clogged.
7	What is the reason to charge air pressure drops? Insufficient cooling of the charge air. Fuel pressure in the system too low. Exhaust gas boiler fouled. Scavenge ports dirty.	Exhaust gas boiler fouled.
8	During a ballast voyage, the fuel consumption is noticeable higher than normal and all pressures and temperatures is normal, may the reason to this be: Fouling of the hull Water in the fuel. Opposing sea current Long time since the last overhaul.	Fouling of the hull
9	The exhaust gas temperature is too high in all cylinders because of: Air in the fuel system. Any of the others. Charge air pressure is too low. Injection too early in some of the cylinders.	Charge air pressure is too low.
10	The maximum cylinder pressure is lower than normal due to: Fouling in the turbocharger. Fuel oil filters are clogged. Lost propeller. Fuel oil with poor combustion properties.	Fuel oil with poor combustion properties.

Engine Performance. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	Whatwill happen if the charge air pressure drops? The performance of the engine is nearly the same. The cylinder cooling water flow becomes too high. The turbochargers cooling water flow becomes to high. The performance of the engine is reduced noticeably	The performance of the engine is reduced noticeably
2	If the measured value bellow is connected to the output of the jacket CW temperature transmitter and the Pu of the controller is 9 psi, and we reduce the temperature setting from 75 to 72 degree C what happens to the Pu ? It will decrease below 9 psi. It will increase above 9 psi. It will decrease to 0 psi. It will increase to 20 psi.	It will increase above 9 psi.
3	This characteristic shows output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If PB = 100 % is the graph shown in "a " . What is the amplification factor and the proportional band represented by graph "f" ? Amplification 50 %, Proportional Band 100 % Amplification 0, Proportional Band infinitive Amplification infinitive, Proportional band 0 Proportional band 50 %, amplification 100 %	Amplification 0, Proportional Band infinitive
4	The use of a steam trap has a beneficial influence on the thermal balance of the heat exchanger fitted before that trap. This is because _____ it will allow the steam to expand to atmospheric pressure. all heat is used under corresponding saturated pressure. all heat will be extracted from the steam before turning to water. it will allow the steam to expand below atmosphere to vacuum.	all heat will be extracted from the steam before turning to water.
5	Graph "d" of this characteristic showing output pressure Pu of a controller effecting valve lift, represents ZERO proportional band over INFINITIVE amplification. How does the system works ? It works with intolerable offsets. It works with maximum range offsets. It works FULL OPEN/FULL CLOSE, unsteady, offset NIL. It does not regulate the level at all.	It works FULL OPEN/FULL CLOSE, unsteady, offset NIL.
6	What do you call the pneumatic mode of operating of the pneumatic controlled valve V2 ? Negative activation Air to Open Air to Close Positive activation	Air to Open
7	If the input flow Q1 increases to Q1` and level L increases to L` what will initially happen ? The output pressure Pu will increase proportionally to L` The proportional band PB will change The amplification factor K will change The amplifier will increase its air output pressurising bellow P	The amplifier will increase its air output pressurising bellow P
8	If Q1 is the filling volume of the tank and Q2 the outflow volume of the tank and the level L is constant by controller output pressure Pu = 9 psi, the valve V2 will be open for _____ 75 % 50 % 25 % 100 %	50 %
9	Since the output of the pressure transmitter is not linear with the flow in the pipe as measured over the measuring flange the output signal should be sent to a _____ summator. balancing valve. equaliser. root extractor.	root extractor.
10	Suppose the INPUT of the pneumatic controller is 4 psi and the PB is 25 %. If variation on the input is 1psi down, what is the variation on the output expressed in psi ? 1 psi 6 psi 4 psi 2 psi	1 psi

Engine Performance. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	What would be the variation of output on this pneumatic controller if Proportional B and PB = infinity, by varying the input as shown here ? Between 3 and 15 psi No response, nil 1 psi Infinity, full open, full close control system	No response, nil
2	This drawing shows which kind of pneumatic controller ? A proportional integrating controller. A proportional differentiating controller. A proportional integrating-differential controller. A proportional controller.	A proportional integrating controller.
3	This is an actual lay-out drawing of a pneumatic amplifier block. Where is the 20 psi supply air admitted ? At air passage item 14 At air passage item 15 At air passage item 12 At air passage item 13	At air passage item 13
4	How is it ensured that the flow of the scavenge air is directed symmetrically through the cylinder ? By the scavenge port shape. By the uniflow system. By the reverse system. By the turbocharger.	By the scavenge port shape.
5	Suppose the variation of INPUT is 1 psi down instead of 1 psi up on this pneumatic P-Controller. If the proportional band PB is 25 % what will be the output pressure ? 3 psi 2 psi 6 psi 0 psi	3 psi
6	A vessel has a propeller with 3828 mm pitch and makes 109 RPM. If the sea speed is 12.8 knots, what is the slip ? 8.3 % 3.8 % 5.3 % 3.5 %	5.3 %
7	A diesel engine cylinder diameter is 700 mm, its stroke is 1200 mm, its IMP is 8.9 bar and its revolutions 120 RPM. What is the POWER developed per cylinder ? 2052 BHP 1633 shaft horsepower 2344 metric HP 1095 IHP	1095 IHP
8	A ship`s main engine runs at 114 RPM. The slip that day was 7.4 %. If the ship`s speed that day was 13.82 knots, what is the pitch of the propeller ? 4426 mm 4182 mm 4040 mm 3938 mm	4040 mm
9	As we can use only the linear part of the characteristic, this shows that the flapper can only travel 0.01 mm, therefore DELTA psi obtained can only be less than 1 psi. Can we use the flapper nozzle system ? Yes, but the readings obtained between DELTA psi need to be amplified. No, the nozzle/flapper assembly needs modification. No , the flapper system will gives erratic readings. Yes, but the valves need a servo booster.	Yes, but the readings obtained between DELTA psi need to be amplified.
10	This characteristic shows the output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If PB = 100 % is the graph shown in "a" . What is the graph of PB = 50 % ? Graph b Graph e Graph d Graph f	Graph b

Engine Performance. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	These characteristics show Pu in relation to flapper distance and NBP of a pneumatic nozzle flapper and transmitter; thus with the smallest distance movements it fluctuates sharply. What is the result and the remedy ? Tendency to open. Fit elongated flappers in output. Unsteady operation. Bellows are to be fitted in pneumatic lines. Unsteady operation .Springs are to be fitted on all moving parts. Tendency to close. Fit by pass nozzle to amplifier.	Unsteady operation. Bellows are to be fitted in pneumatic lines.
2	Something is wrong with the controller setting of this water level control system. Suppose the Proportional Band is 12.5 %, to what value would you reset it ? 500 % 20 % 50 % 100 %	100 %
3	Where is the output pressure Pu taken from this pneumatic amplifier shown here ? Air passage 14 Air passage 15 Air passage 12 Air passage 13	Air passage 14
4	Via which air passage is the nozzle back pressure from the nozzle/flapper admitted for this pneumatic amplifier ? Air passage 13 Air passage 14 Air passage 15 Air passage 12	Air passage 12
5	What is item No 3 shown of this pneumatic amplifier ? Blade (feather) springs to load the ball and the vent valve. Nozzle flappers. Ball valve securing blades. Retaining plates for the ball valve.	Blade (feather) springs to load the ball and the vent valve.
6	How can the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier be initially adjusted ? By screw item 1 By screw item 10 By screw item 4 By screw item 11	By screw item 4
7	What is part No 4 shown in this drawing of a pneumatic amplifier ? The exhaust or vent compartment. The output air compartment. The nozzle back pressure supply compartment. The air supply compartment.	The air supply compartment.
8	A ship`s propeller is 4882 mm in diameter with pitch of 4226 mm. The engine RPM is 122. Assuming no slip what is the ship`s speed? 16.7 knots. 15.22 knots. 19.29 knots. 18.44 knots.	16.7 knots.
9	On which part of the Pneumatic Amplifier is the nozzle back pressure of the nozzle/flapper (NBP) acting ? On membrane M On spring S On ball valve B On valve V	On membrane M
10	What factors influence the vacuum (vacuum %) inside the shell of a fresh water generator ? The pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector. All of these. The temperature of the fresh water heating the evaporator. The temperature of the sea water cooling the condenser.	All of these.

Engine Performance. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	Thermal efficiency refers to heat engines and is the ratio of _____ Output to BTU converted in energy. input to the output on the power take off. output on the shaft/flywheel to internally produced power. horsepower to BTU input of fuel.	output on the shaft/flywheel to internally produced power.
2	Suppose the Proportional Band of this pneumatic controller is increased to 500 % and the input variation remains the same. What would be the output variation ? 5 psi 0.2 psi 0.5 psi 1 psi	0.2 psi
3	This characteristic shows output pressure of a pneumatic controller controlling water level. The level is fluctuating. What is wrong with the setting of the controller.? The span is too narrow. The range is too large. The proportional band is too small. The amplification is too small.	The proportional band is too small.
4	If the length of "a" is equal to the length of "b" what will be the proportional band "PB" of this pneumatic controller ? 0 % 25 % 50 % 100 %	100 %
5	In this electrical amplifier drawing, what takes the place of the flapper/nozzle unit used by the pneumatic control unit with amplifier ? U1 U2 R2 R1	R2
6	If the pressures in the MV and the SV bellows are equal, what will be the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic P-controller ? 9 psi 12 psi 3 psi 6 psi	9 psi
7	For which type of controller are these the input (left) and the response (right) characteristics ? A proportional integrating controller A pneumatic inverter A pneumatic integrator A pressure integrating controller	A proportional integrating controller
8	What measure of power developed inside a cylinder is obtained by using the formula PMI x cylinder section surface (cm2) x stroke (metre) : 75 ? Effective horsepower. Indicated horsepower. Brake horsepower. Metric Horsepower.	Indicated horsepower.
9	What is the amplification factor (K) of a pneumatic amplifier ? K = 4 K = 12 K = 16 K = 20	K = 16
10	An engine develops 2500 IHP and the BHP is 2000. What is the mechanical efficiency? 1.25 or 125% 0.8 or 80% 0.08 or 8% 12.5 or 1250%	0.8 or 80%

Engine Performance. Test 9

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the function of valve V in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier To transmit the pressure Pu to the membrane To push spring S open via the ball B To allow stabilising feedback pressure on the membrane To allow venting of pressure Pu to the atmosphere	To allow venting of pressure Pu to the atmosphere
2	Which of the following is a record of the pressure existing in the cylinder at various positions of the piston throughout the engine cycle ? A Temperature diagram. a Cycle diagram. A Timing diagram. An Indicator diagram.	An Indicator diagram.
3	The basic type of reversing air starting system that can be used only on two-stroke, ported, direct coupled, propulsion Diesel engines is the _____ distributor type. rotating camshaft. reversing latch. sliding camshaft.	rotating camshaft.
4	To find the indicated power developed in the cylinder the indicator card is used to determine the _____ compression pressure. firing pressure. mean effective pressure. mean height of the diagram.	mean effective pressure.
5	What method is employed in the design of waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer while maintaining low overall weight ? An unfired exhaust gas preheater is added to increase the heat transfer rate. An external superheated unit is located above the boiler to the gas passages. Feedwater is preheated in a separately fired economizer. Steel fins are installed on the generating tubes to increase the effective surface area.	Steel fins are installed on the generating tubes to increase the effective surface area.
6	The flow through this heat exchanger is determined by the "Reynolds number". Depending on certain factors, this allows the system designer to select either _____ turbulent flow or laminar flow. parallel flow or turbulent flow. parallel flow or contra flow. streamline flow or contra flow.	turbulent flow or laminar flow.
7	Why is this connecting rod eye split obliquely? To decrease the bottom end bolt shock loading. To avoid setting up unecessary stress in the rod eye. To allow the piston/connecting rod to pass through the liner. To allow access to both of the bolts and bearing from one side of the engine.	To allow the piston/connecting rod to pass through the liner.
8	What is the purpose of part number 2 ? To accelerate the liquid to the same speed as the bowl. To reduce the bowl speed to adapt to the type of liquid. To keep the liquid separated. To prevent clean liquid mixing with the in-coming dirty liquid.	To accelerate the liquid to the same speed as the bowl.
9	A ship makes an observed speed of 17 knots. The engine speed is 17.5 knots. What is the propeller slip ? 2.85 % 28.5 % 285 % .0285 %	2.85 %
10	From this drawing of a pneumatic pressure transmitter, what is the Proportional Band setting ? Proportional Band more than 100 %, amplification K less than 1 Proportional Band 0%, amplification infinitive Proportional Band = 100 %, amplification K = 1 Proportional Band less than 100 %, amplification K more than 1	Proportional Band less than 100 %, amplification K more than 1

Pollution Prevention. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid? Any of the other options. If significant alterations have taken place in the ship`s construction without sanction. If significant alterations have taken place to fittings, equipment or arrangements without sanction. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction.	If significant alterations have taken place in the ship’s construction without sanction. If significant alterations have taken place to fittings, equipment or arrangements without sanction. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction.
2	OPA 90 - tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to _____ disperse floating oil. wash oil from the dock. prevent floating oil from escaping downstream. wash oil off the cargo deck.	prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.
3	OPA 90 - during oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills in _____ areas with waves with medium swells and significant height. areas close to response centers. calm weather conditions in coastal waters. rough weather conditions in open sea.	calm weather conditions in coastal waters.
4	What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics? Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary Discharge to a shore facility only Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore	Discharge to a shore facility only
5	OPA 90 - in the event of a major oil spill, what would most likely happen to a crewmember`s job if "unlimited liability" is assessed on the ship? He would lose his job He would get a contract extension He will be entitled to one months extra pay He may be promoted	He would lose his job
6	These items are standard inspection items for Marpol, as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors. Which item does not belong? Item V - does not belong Item VI - does not belong Item VII - does not belong Item II - does not belong	Item VII - does not belong
7	New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily water separator which was previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to: 10 ppm 15 ppm 50 ppm 25 ppm	15 ppm
8	Under OPA 90, the intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into the sea is best described as _____ a worst case scenario. willful misconduct. an operational spill. a casualty spill.	willful misconduct.
9	Under OPA 90, the Logistics Section of the Incident Command system is divided into the Service Branch and the Support Branch. The Service Branch is responsible for _____ supply, facilities and ground support. electricity, sanitation and bioremediation. communication, medical and food. communication and ground support.	communication, medical and food.
10	Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of the OSRO or Oil Spill Response Organisation, which one of the statements below is true? The P & I club is to activate the OSRO within 24 to 48 hours. The ship`s staff alone is to activate the OSRO directly within 30 minutes after the spill, after which the USCG is informed. The shore management is able to activate the OSRO. The Harbour Master`s office is to activate the OSRO immediately.	The shore management is able to activate the OSRO.

Pollution Prevention. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	Under OPA 90, the term "OSRO " means _____ Offshore Scientific Research Organisation. Official Safety and Regulatory Organisation. Oceanic Science Regional Observatory. Oil Spill Response Organisation.	Oil Spill Response Organisation.
2	Under OPA 90, a "Worst Case Scenario" includes the discharge of the vessel`s entire cargo during _____ the absence of the Master. grounding. adverse weather. fire or explosion.	adverse weather.
3	OPA 90 - spills of persistent oils with greater than 1.0 specific gravity _____ dissipate with wind and current. do not readily evaporate and are difficult to recover. should be easily dispersed with detergents. should be recovered with skimmers.	do not readily evaporate and are difficult to recover.
4	The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is _____ only enforceable in the Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf. an international pollution law. an equivalent standard of Marpol 73/78. United States legislation.	United States legislation.
5	At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is this survey called? The Special survey The Midterm survey The Intermediate survey The Annual survey	The Intermediate survey
6	Why should water ballast not in general be carried in tanks intended for oil fuel in passenger ships? Risk of ship stability problems Risk of corroded fuel oil tanks Risk for pollution Risk of engine stop due to water in fuel oil	Risk for pollution
7	Under OPA 90, application of Oil Dispersants to an oil spill must _____ be made within the first 24 - 48 hours after the spill. have official approval and be made within the first 24 - 48 hours. be your first response to clean-up procedures. have official approval.	have official approval and be made within the first 24 - 48 hours.
8	Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to discharging these into the sea? Dillutants are allowed Oil dispersants are allowed Not allowed at all Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm	Not allowed at all
9	Under OPA 90 shipboard pollution containers should be capable of recovering at least _____ barrels of oily waste. 55 20 30 12	12
10	Under OPA 90 regulations, oils have been divided into _____ different groups based upon their environmental persistence. 6 3 4 5	5

Pollution Prevention. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	The oil record book for machinery space operations must be completed on a tank to tank basis whenever which of these operations take place? III, IV, VI, VII III, IV, V, VI I, II, III, VII I, II, IV, V	I, II, III, VII
2	A ship other than a tanker of 400grt and above, but less than 10,000grt, cannot discharge oily mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied? II, V, VII II, III, VI II, IV, VIII I, IV, VI	II, V, VII
3	Which of these items about the discharge of dirty ballast must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? I, II, III, V, VI, VIII, X, XI I, II, IV, V, VII, VIII, IX, X I, II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII, XI III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X	I, II, III, V, VI, VIII, X, XI
4	An oil tanker is prohibited from discharging oily mixtures into the sea except when certain conditions are satisfied. Which of the conditions mentioned here must be satisfied? II, III, VIII, IX, X, XII II, IV , VI, VIII, X , XII I, IV, V, VII , VIII, X, XII II, III, V, VII, IX, X, XI	II, III, V, VII, IX, X, XI
5	When alterations to the ship`s construction, equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are carried out without sanction, the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid. What is the exception? Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and lay-out does not deviate from Marpol requirements Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by the Administration Improvement in ship`s construction The direct replacement of equipment and fittings	The direct replacement of equipment and fittings
6	On tankers, segregated ballast tank and clean water ballast systems have reduced the amount of _____ oil getting into the sea. time that the ships spend in port. time spent cleaning cargo tanks. time spent on cargo and ballast operations at sea and in port.	oil getting into the sea.
7	Regardless of the size of an oil spill in U.S. waters, the following must always be notified _____ the local U.S.Coast Guard captain, Classification Society, Salvage and Fire Fighting Contractors. the Oil Spill Response Contractor, Owner or operator, Flag State authorities, P & I club representative. the IMO coordination Centre. the U.S. Coast Guard National Response Center.	the U.S. Coast Guard National Response Center.
8	One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is to _____ enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in the event of a pollution incident. restrict the trade of foreign nations. create an international pollution regime. limit the access of tankers to US waters	enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in the event of a pollution incident.
9	For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such that, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these requirements? I, IV, V, VII I, II, IV. VII I, III, IV, VI I, II, IV, V	I, II, IV. VII
10	Your vessel is moored alongside in Houston, discharging oil to the terminal. During discharging your vessel is hit by an other vessel and your vessel is leaking oil into the Houston Channel. What will you as Sen.Off.Deck do? Continue discharging. Commence cleaning up the oil spill around the vessel by using chemicals. Call for tug boats for assistance to nearest anchorage. Stop discharge, inform USCG and Qualified Individual.	Stop discharge, inform USCG and Qualified Individual.

Pollution Prevention. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration, (eg. oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of these conditions? I, III II IV V III , IV I, II, V	III , IV
2	You are planning the discharge of a crude oil tanker with segregated ballast tanks, SBT. Which of the cargo tanks should be crude oil washed if you are expecting heavy weather? At least 30% of the cargo tanks The dedicated heavy weather ballast tank All the cargo tanks that were not COW`ed in the last discharge port Both sloptanks, and 30% of the remaining cargo tanks	The dedicated heavy weather ballast tank
3	Under OPA 90, a tank vessel owner or operator must make contractual arrangements with _____ oil spill clean-up contractors. the National Transportation Safety Board. fire fighting, lightering and salvage contractors. oil spill clean-up contractors and fire fighting, lightering and salvage contractors.	oil spill clean-up contractors and fire fighting, lightering and salvage contractors.
4	Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is the exception? Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could probably result Crew negligence Damage to ship and equipment due to operational error Collision or groundings	Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could probably result
5	OPA 90 - the most cost effective and convenient method of disposing of oily debris is _____ incineration. recycling. landfills. commutation.	incineration.
6	Under OPA 90, the Incident Command System is _____ the Owners / Operators in house control system. the method used to implement a response to a catastrophic spill under a Unified Command structure. a computerised system used to record marine accidents. only adapted by the US Coast Guard personnel for internal use.	the method used to implement a response to a catastrophic spill under a Unified Command structure.
7	What is the maximum oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the ship is not in a special area? 50 ppm 100 ppm 10ppm 15 ppm	15 ppm
8	What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating, structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine room? Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills. Whatever paint is available. The same colour as machinery and equipment. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with.	White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with.
9	Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oil leakage. Who should be called to handle pollution claims and damages? The Leading Hull Underwriter`s nearest Average Agent. The Classification Society`s representative. Flag state representative. The P & I Club`s nearest representative.	The P & I Club`s nearest representative.
10	Under OPA 90, due diligence describes _____ All of the other options emergency preparedness. attention to safety. good faith effort.	All of the other options

Pollution Prevention. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	Under OPA 90 a level "A" Oil Spill Removal Organisation" (OSRO) has _____ the lowest recovery capability. provisional status only. the greatest recovery capability. recovery capabilities in open ocean water only.	the lowest recovery capability.
2	The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges of oil mixtures at sea. The regulations will not apply if the discharge is the result of damage arising from which items in this list? IV, V I, IV II, V III, VI	IV, V
3	Under OPA 90, the term `Qualified Individual` means _____ A pollution clean-up specialist appointed by the U.S. Coast Guard and the Environmental Protection Agency. The owner or the operator of the ship. An English speaking person available on a 24 hour basis, located in the United States, authorised by the owner to activate the vessel`s Response Plan. A Project Scientist with exceptional qualifications.	An English speaking person available on a 24 hour basis, located in the United States, authorised by the owner to activate the vessel`s Response Plan.
4	All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill recovery equipment of sufficient capacity to _____ clean up an accidental spill up to 500 barrels. accommodate oil spilt on deck. accommodate oil spilt in the Engine Room. combat a worst case spill.	accommodate oil spilt on deck.
5	You are Sen.Off.Deck on a laden tanker. You have just been in a collision, and have a big leakage under waterline. What should you do to reduce the pollution as much as possible? Call company for advice. Level in the tank to be reduced as much as possible to reduce/stop any further oil spill. Shut down non-essential air intakes. When wind and current are taken into consideration, estimate the expected oil slick movement.	Level in the tank to be reduced as much as possible to reduce/stop any further oil spill.
6	Topping off during oil cargo loading or bunkering is a most critical operation. Which five of these precautions or actions must be taken? I, III, V, VI, VII II, IV, VI, VII, VIII II, III, V, VI, VIII I, II, III, V, VIII	I, III, V, VI, VII
7	If mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it affect unscheduled inspections carried out according to Marpol? Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory	The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory
8	Which of these items concerning automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I? I, II, V, VI II, III, V, VII II, IV, VI, VII I, IV, V, VII	I, IV, V, VII
9	Which of these items concerning non-automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I? III, IV, V I, II, VI I, II, III I, III, VI	I, II, III
10	Existing tankers up to 40,000 dwt which are fitted with CBTand COW and designated as "Crude Oil/Product Carrier" on the IOPP certificate should operate as which of these? I, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII I, II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII I, II, III, IV, V, VI VII	I, II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII

Pollution Prevention. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	Pump room sea chest valve leaks are a common cause of pollution on tankers due to leak back of oil in port. What preventive measures must be carried out to prevent any pollution from this cause? The outboard sea valve is tested by opening the drain between the outboard and inboard sea valves which are in series. The suction filter drain cock or vent cock is to be opened indicating that there is pressure on the suction line with sea valves closed. Put up a static head on the sea chest valves and see if the piping drains off indicating a leak. Open up the drains on the ballast pump and see that there is a leak with suction valve of ballast pump open and sea chest valves closed.	The outboard sea valve is tested by opening the drain between the outboard and inboard sea valves which are in series.
2	Who can certify true copies of Oil Record Books? The Master Port Authorities A Notary Public The Officers of the Flag State	The Master
3	Which of these items about the discharge of ballast from dedicated clean ballast tanks must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII, X II, III, V, VI, VIII, IX, X I, II, III, IV, V, VII, X I, III, IV, V, VIII, IX, X	I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII, X
4	During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because _____ the oily water separator filters were found dirty. the sludge tank was found to be full. the engine room bilges were found dirty. the engine room bilge lines were found dirty.	the oily water separator filters were found dirty.
5	Of the four categories of discharge associated with the operation of offshore platforms, for which type or types is Marpol 73/78 applicable? Type I only Type IV only Types I, III and IV Type I and Type IV	Type I only
6	Annex IV of Marpol, deals with sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations concerning processing and treatment of sewage? Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must be installed on board The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries have adapted them and have stringent regulations Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant is on board	The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries have adapted them and have stringent regulations
7	During loading of oil, you notice oil on the water near your vessel. What should you do first? Notify the terminal Notify the Coast Guard Stop loading Search the vessel for leaks	Stop loading
8	What is the meaning of "an incident" according to Marpol? The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances. The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture.	The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances.
9	What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol? A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils Any tank where slops or sludges are collected The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fitted centre tank A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings or other oily mixtures	A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings or other oily mixtures
10	Which description given is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol? If discharged from a stationary ship in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.	If discharged from a stationary ship in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below

Pollution Prevention. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast? The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from the cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast pump The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank, pumped via the segregated ballast pump Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps cannot be used	The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from the cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast
2	In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker " according to Marpol, the date on it`s building contract would read _____ after 1st January 1981. after 1st June 1982. after 1st June 1979. after 31st of December 1980.	after 1st June 1979.
3	Marpol defines Crude Oil as _____ a liquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were removed. a liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions were added. a non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which neither distillate fractions were removed nor added. a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally, whether treated or not, irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.	a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally, whether treated or not, irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.
4	Every oil tanker of _____ grt and above and every other ship of _____ grt and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys. 150, 400 500, 1000 400, 700 250, 500	150, 400
5	The initial Marpol (IOPP) survey carried out before a ship enters service, in order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations, shall include _____ a complete survey of all piping. a complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks and slop tanks. a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials, in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex. a complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil-discharging monitoring system, oil filtering and separating systems.	a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials, in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.
6	MARPOL 73/78 - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left with a limited amount of packing materials. What will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of this materials? 12 miles 50 miles 25 miles 3 miles	25 miles
7	Which of these items is the recommended procedure for testing cargo lines on tankers? I, II, V, VII I, II, IV, VII I, II, V, VI II, III, IV, VII	I, II, V, VI
8	Who may carry out MARPOL Surveys? Port-State Control Inspectors Coast Guard Inspectors Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by Administrations Approved ship`s officers	Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by Administrations
9	In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal? In coastal waters. Not permissible any where. 100 n.m. from shore line. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL).	Not permissible any where.
10	Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that, within 3 miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters _____ you cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard unless ground to less than 25 mm. you cannot throw anything overboard. you cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that float overboard. you cannot throw plastics overboard.	you cannot throw anything overboard.

Pollution Prevention. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that float _____ may be thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore. may not be thrown overboard at any time. may be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore. may be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore.	may be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
2	Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than _____ in size. 25 mm 10mm 5mm 30 mm	25 mm
3	Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics _____ cannot be thrown overboard within 3 miles offshore. cannot be thrown overboard at any time. cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore. cannot be thrown overboard within 12 miles offshore.	cannot be thrown overboard at any time.
4	What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol? A sea area where, in view of its particular dense traffic, no overboard discharge of any oily mixture is allowed An area with particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at any time A sea area where, for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions, and in view of traffic, special prevention is required	A sea area where, for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions, and in view of traffic, special prevention is required
5	There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73/78 (Annex I to VI). They deal with pollution caused by _____ I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution. I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, III = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil. I = Oil, II = Sewage, III = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution. I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, III = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.	I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
6	Which of these waters are the Special Areas as defined by Marpol Annex V? I, II, III, IV, VI, VIII, X, XIII I, III, IV, V, VII, IX, X, XIII I, II, III, V, VII, VIII, X, XIII I, II, IV, V, VIII, X, XII, XIII	I, II, IV, V, VIII, X, XII, XIII
7	If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately? Inform the vessel`s agent. Report to relevant authorities. Inform the manager. Start clean-up operations.	Report to relevant authorities.
8	How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations? They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention National regulations in the ports visited may be more stringent and must be complied with. Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be complied with. Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with.	National regulations in the ports visited may be more stringent and must be complied with.
9	Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I? Fuel oil No 1 D Fuel oil No 2 Fuel oil No 4 Fuel oil No 1	Fuel oil No 4
10	Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with _____ the handling and discharge of garbage the construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational procedures of petroleum tankers the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangements for discharge of cargo residues the labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages	the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangements for discharge of cargo residues

Pollution Prevention. Test 9

#	Question	Right answers
1	If mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it affect unscheduled inspections carried out according to Marpol? The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period	The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory
2	The Record of Construction and Equipment for ships other than tankers contains information in Chapter II about oil discharge from the machinery space and fuel tanks. Which of these items are included? II, III, IV, VI, VII I, II, III, IV, V, VII I, II, III, IV, VI, VII I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII	I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII
3	The Record of Construction and Equipment has a chapter about "Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges)". What information is recorded in this chapter? The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to open deck sludge connection The total tank capacity and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of sludge tanks The location and capacity of the sludge tanks	The total tank capacity and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of sludge tanks
4	Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I? Fuel oil No 2 Fuel oil No 4 Fuel oil No 1 Fuel oil No 1 D	Fuel oil No 4
5	Which of the following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I? Flashed feed stock Reformates Polymer fuel Alkylates fuel	Flashed feed stock
6	Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I? Automotive Spindloe oil Clarified Road Oil	Automotive
7	Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution? Blending Stocks Roofers Flux Solvent Straight run residue	Solvent
8	You are the Sen.Off.Deck on vessel "A" and you have been involved in collision with vessel "B". Your cargo is fuel oil. The oil cargo is leaking out and the weather condition is good. What will you do to avoid the oil to reach and pollute the coast line? By putting the vessel mooring ropes as an oil boom around the vessel and the oil slick. By throwing chemicals on the water. By doing nothing and hope that the current will move the oil slick into the open sea. Asking any other vessel for immediately help.	By putting the vessel mooring ropes as an oil boom around the vessel and the oil slick.
9	Marpol Annex IV concerning sewage is not yet in force, but a number of countries (for example USA) have adapted it and have stringent regulations. The regulations concern which of these items? II, III, IV, V, VI I, II, III, V, VII I, II, IV, VI, VIII I, III, V, VII, VIII	I, II, IV, VI, VIII
10	Which of these items are listed in the Record of Construction and Equipment for a ship other than an oil tanker? I, III, IV, V, VII, IX II, III, IV VI, VIII, IX I, II, III, IV, VI, VII I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII	I, II, III, IV, VI, VII

Pollution Prevention. Test 10

#	Question	Right answers
1	Who may carry out Marpol Inspections? Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations. All of the other options. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors. Coast Guard officers.	All of the other options.
2	What is the most probable place that any oil will flow over the ship`s side in case of an overflow during loading/discharging? Near the sounding pipe of the tank being loaded/discharged Aft part of the tank-deck Near the cargo manifold Near the hatch of the tank being loaded/discharged	Aft part of the tank-deck
3	Which of the following is NOT required to be in the oil transfer procedures? The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel A line diagram of the vessel`s oil transfer piping The number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations Any special procedures for topping off tanks	The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel
4	Pollution Regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a: Two-piece soft patch None of the other alternatives Wooden plug Soft rubber plug	None of the other alternatives
5	You are onboard a vessel enroute off the West African coast. How far off the coast do you have to be, to be able to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials ? Dumping of garbage is not allowed in this area 25 nautical miles off the coast 3 nautical miles off the coast 12 nautical miles off the coast	25 nautical miles off the coast
6	Which of these items about the disposal of residues and oily mixtures not otherwise dealt with must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? I, III, V I, IV, VI I, II, V II, V, VI	I, II, V
7	Which of these items are listed in the Record of Construction and Equipment for an oil tanker? I, II, III, IV, V, VIII, IX, XI, XII II, III, V, VI, VII, IX, X, XI, XII I, II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII, X, XI I, II, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX, X, XII	I, II, III, IV, V, VIII, IX, XI, XII
8	Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-connection) for discharging of sewage ? 3 4 1 2	4
9	During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because _____ lubricating oil was transferred in port. an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator. an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump. oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.	an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator.
10	What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) should fail during a ballast voyage? The failure must be noted in the Oil Record Book The failure must be repaired If the failure cannot be repaired onboard, the ODME must be repaired before the ship commences its next voyage All of the mentioned must be performed	All of the mentioned must be performed

Pollution Prevention. Test 11

#	Question	Right answers
1	OPA 90 - under normal conditions a spill of Group V oil will _____ burn. float. sink. disperse with wind and current.	sink.
2	The IOPP certificate shows under which government authority it was issued as well as _____ the date of keel laid and place. the designation of organisation authorised by the government. the type of intended voyages by the ship. the date of build and place.	the designation of organisation authorised by the government.
3	You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algerie, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard? Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings No, food waste can not be dumped overboard	No, food waste can not be dumped overboard
4	What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water? The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship`s side It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind	The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
5	What is the most important way to contain small oil-spills from cargo operations on the ship? Have sawdust located by the manifold Have ample room in the drip-tray by the manifold Have all scuppers plugged Have Sandpiper pumps rigged on the aft part of the tank deck	Have all scuppers plugged
6	What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship? Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship Rig an oil boom around the ship Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill Have sawdust ready for use	Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
7	Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These intervals are not to exceed _____ two years. two and a half years. three years. five years.	five years.
8	If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do? Remove the oil from the water Contain the oil within a small area Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water Absorb the oil for easy removal	Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water
9	How often do you have to certify cargo hoses? Every 24 month Only when you purchase new hoses Every 12 month Every 6 month	Every 12 month
10	Who is responsible for testing and cerfication of all cargo hoses. Ship`s captain Ship`s chief officer Shipowners Suppliers of hoses	Ship`s captain

Pollution Prevention. Test 12

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard? 0 PPM 15 PPM 100 PPM 50 PPM	15 PPM
2	Manifold trays on tankers should be checked regularly to ensure that _____ they are clean , they are free of corrosion, that drain plugs are not frozen. no rust has accumulated in the bottom, that the drain cocks are open. the stripping suction pipe is free, the suction valve is operational, that no water has collected in it, that the drain plugs are closed. they are clean, that the dumping drains are free and operational, that water collected is drained off.	they are clean, that the dumping drains are free and operational, that water collected is drained off.
3	During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because _____ no up to date deck port log was kept. no pollution placards were posted. no electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted. no instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted.	no pollution placards were posted.
4	In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining what? The report of the accident indicating precautions The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge The amount discharged and the reasons for it The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged	The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge
5	Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common causes of oil pollution. Which five of these items are the main preventive measures against tank overflow? II, III, V, VI, VII I, III, IV, V, VI II, IV, V, VI, VII I, II, III, VI, VII	II, IV, V, VI, VII
6	Pollution incidents have been caused by leaking pipe lines (corrosion on bottom), faulty dresser couplings, valve flanges, leaking manometer connections etc. To prevent these what preventive actions should be taken? Hydrostatic pressure tests should be frequently carried out at maximum pressure, including COW lines. Inspect pipelines frequently. Change dresser couplings and flange packings, O-rings and seal rings at regular intervals. Inspect piping in particular on bottom and replace corroded sections, change dresser couplings and flange packings, O-rings regularly.	Hydrostatic pressure tests should be frequently carried out at maximum pressure, including COW lines.
7	After oil cargo loading/discharge or bunkering, draining of shore lines, hoses and loading arms may be done under pressure provided which of these precautions are followed? II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII I, II, III, V, VII, IX II, IV, V, VI, VIII, IX	I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII
8	In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly inspected to make sure that _____ the coating is intact. they are correctly fitting. the fastenings are not worn. they have not developed cracks or holes.	they have not developed cracks or holes.
9	To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on board your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions? I, III, V I, II, III I, II, V II, IV, VI	II, IV, VI
10	Which of these items should be included in an on board pollution prevention training program? I, II, V, VII II, III, IV, VI I, IV, VI, VII I. III, V, VI	I. III, V, VI

Pollution Prevention. Test 13

#	Question	Right answers
1	New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to: 30 litters per nautical mile 25 litters per nautical mile 20 litters per nautical mile 10 litters per nautical mile	30 litters per nautical mile
2	When filling the final cargo tank at the end of loading on tankers, which of these precautions should be taken in order to avoid pollution? I, II, III, V, VII I, II, IV, VI, VII II, III, V, VI, VIII I, II, IV, V, VIII	I, II, IV, VI, VII
3	Why are you only allowed to load maximum 98% of the tank capacity? Danger of overloading. Danger to vessel stability and strength. It is company policy. Due to temperature expansion.	Due to temperature expansion.
4	Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only be thrown overboard outside _____ miles offshore. 25 12 3 10	12
5	Dump valves fitted to manifold trays on tankers should be _____ fitted with caps to ensure that they are not leaking. connected to flexible hoses fitted to receptacle drums. checked regularly that they can be easily opened. tested regularly for leakages.	checked regularly that they can be easily opened.
6	For oil spill containment on tankers, spilt oil on deck must be dumped in the slop tank or other receptacle tank. Which of the following arrangements must be checked or maintained? II, III, IV, VI I, III, IV, VI II, III, IV, V I, II, III, V	I, III, IV, VI
7	A method NOT usually allowed in cleaning up oil spills in the US waters is: Skimmers Straw Dispersant Sawdust	Dispersant
8	During all cargo oil loading/discharging or bunkering operations as well as during oil transfers, oil spill equipment should be _____ kept in the emergency headquarters to be used in accordance with the instructions of the responsible person. kept in the vicinity of the cargo transfer or bunker transfer hoses near the manifold connections and be used if required by the emergency party. kept near the deck manifold and be used in accordance with the chief officer`s instructions. readily available in a place known to all crew members for immediate use by the assigned deck party.	readily available in a place known to all crew members for immediate use by the assigned deck party.
9	A separate garbage logbook has to be kept onboard, which item(s) is not required to be filled in? Person in charge Type of material discharged Date of discharge Location of discharge	Person in charge
10	Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill? It is not covered by the pollution law It does little harm to marine life It will sink more rapidly than crude oil It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill	It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill

Pollution Prevention. Test 14

#	Question	Right answers
1	Most minor oilspills are caused by: Human error Equipment failure Major casualties Unforeseeable circumstances	Human error
2	MARPOL regulations require that the slop tank capacity is 3 % of the cargo tank capacity. Under which of these conditions can the slop tank capacity be reduced to 2 or 1.5 %? I, III, V I, IV, VI II, IV, V I, II, VI	I, II, VI
3	Outside special areas there are three ways of disposing of garbage produced on board ships. From this list, choose the three ways? I, IV, V I, II, IV II, III, V I, III, VI	I, IV, V
4	When starting to ballast on non-SBT tankers there is potential for pollution, in that oil remaining in cargo piping may backflow to the sea via the sea chests. Which of these preventative measures should be taken? III, V II, IV I, V III, IV	III, V
5	One of the following areas is NOT a Special Area as mentioned in MARPOL regulations regarding pollution by oil. Which area? The Mediterranean Sea The Red Sea and The Gulf of Aden The Baltic Sea The Gulf of Mexico	The Gulf of Mexico
6	What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operation - tankers) about the internal transfer of cargo during the voyage? Identity of tanks involved, quantity transferred and if tanks were emptied. Time, ship`s position, quantity transferred Time, ship`s position and speed, quantity transferred, tanks involved Total quantity prior to transfer and total quantity after transfer on board, quantity transferred	Identity of tanks involved, quantity transferred and if tanks were emptied.
7	Which of these items about crude oil washing operations must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, IX I, II, III IV, V, VI, VIII, X I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII, X, XI I, II, III, V, VII, VIII, IX, XI	I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII, X, XI
8	Which of these items about the ballasting of dedicated clean ballast tanks must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? I, II, III, IV, V, VII, IX I, II, III, IV, V, IX, X I, II, IV, V, VIII, IX, X I, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX, X	I, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX, X
9	Which of these items about the cleaning of cargo tanks must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? II, III, IV, V, VI II, III, IV, VII, VIII I, II, IV, V, VIII I, II, III, VI, VII	I, II, IV, V, VIII
10	Which of these items concerning accidental or other exceptional discharges of oil must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I? I, II, V, VII I, III, IV VI I, II, III, V I, II, V, VI	I, II, V, VI

Pollution Prevention. Test 15

#	Question	Right answers
1	Every new oil tanker which is required to be provided with SBT or fitted with COW shall comply with which of the following items concerning pumping arrangements and piping? I, II, V, VII I, IV, V, VI II, III, IV, VII I, III, V, VII	I, IV, V, VI
2	What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space operations) about the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control system? The time when the system was started, the time when it was stopped and the ppm of the effluent discharged. The time when the system was started and stopped, the ships speed and the ppm of the affluent discharged. The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again and the reason for failure. The time when the system was started and the time when the system was stopped.	The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again and the reason for failure.
3	Under Marpol, do the requirements of Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment apply to tankers carrying asphalt? No, retention of residues on board is required with discharge of all contaminated washings to reception facilities No, not a specialised trade, no such requirements apply Yes, same requirements as for other tankers Yes, but no slop tanks required	No, retention of residues on board is required with discharge of all contaminated washings to reception facilities
4	The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas (with the exemption of processed engine room bilge water), unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied? I, IV, V, VIII, IX II, IV, V, VII, VIII II, III, V, VIII, IX I, IV, VI, VII, IX	II, IV, V, VII, VIII
5	According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel"? A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery. A cargo of heavy fuel oil , intermediate fuel or diesel oil A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers	Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery.
6	Under Marpol, any ship of 10,000 tons gross and above shall be fitted with which of these items of equipment for oily-water separation and oily mixture discharges? II III IV I	I
7	OPA 90 - the telephone number of the local US Coast Guard Captain of the Port can be easily found by checking _____ with Lloyds Register of Shipping. the National Archives. the geographic Appendix in the Vessel`s Response Plan. with the US Coast Guard Information System, Washington DC.	the geographic Appendix in the Vessel`s Response Plan.
8	Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker? No. Yes. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk.	Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk.
9	Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a _____ oil filtering equipment for engine bilge discharge. 50 ppm 100 ppm 15 ppm 30 ppm	100 ppm
10	Most cases of oil pollution are caused by human errors, often jointly by seafarers and shore based clean-up teams. What has proved to be the essential mistake executed by the shore people regarding environment damages? Dispersement of chemicals? Usage of absorbent pads? Usage of oilbooms? Usage of sawdust?	Dispersement of chemicals?

Pollution Prevention. Test 16

#	Question	Right answers
1	According to Marpol, what does the term "oil " mean? Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products Any grade of crude oil Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products	Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products
2	OPA 90 - a key element of the Incident Command System is _____ liaison with government agencies. reporting _____ containment. recovery.	liaison with government agencies.
3	You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ? Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard	Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
4	The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous products (ethyl ether, antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by prescribing that: The cargo shall not have a height in any tank above that of the vessel`s waterline? They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the ships hull structure? They shall be carried in tanks surrounded by water ballast? They shall be carried only in centre tanks having double bottoms?	They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the ships hull structure?
5	Marpol states that a small diameter line is to be connected outboard of the manifold for the purpose of pumping pipe and cargo pumps drainage to shore receptives. What does "connected outboard of " mean? A connection fitted adjacent to the ships sides for connection to shore lines or to barges A connection on the downstream side of the manifold valves on PS and SB A connection separate from the cargo manifold located more outboard on PS and SB A connection other than the cargo manifold	A connection on the downstream side of the manifold valves on PS and SB
6	What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo / ballast operations - tankers) about the loading of cargo oil? Place of loading, quantity of cargo loaded and quantity of ballast disposed off Place of loading, loading on top of sludge, loading rate, total quantity Time of commencement of loading and time of completion, total quantity of oil loaded Place of loading, type of oil loaded and identity of tanks, total quantity of oil loaded	Place of loading, type of oil loaded and identity of tanks, total quantity of oil loaded
7	Which country requires a vessel to have a written Waste Management Plan? The Nordic countries U.S.A All countries in the IMO Holland	U.S.A
8	The term "tanks with smooth walls" is meant to include which tanks? Cargo oil tanks, including the main tanks of oil bulk/ore carriers, even if they are constructed with framing of small depth. Tanks with vertically corrugated bulkheads. All of the other options. Centre cargo tanks.	All of the other options.
9	Does the definition of an "oil tanker " apply to a gas carrier? Yes, it does No, it does not Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk	Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
10	Pick 3 operations from this list which, when conducted on tankers, may lead to a pollution incident? II, IV, V II, III, VI I, V, VI I, III, V	II, IV, V

Pollution Prevention. Test 17

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which of these items must be recorded in the Oil Record Book -Part I, concerning the disposal of oil residues (sludges)? I, III, VI I, II I, II, VI II, III, IV	I, II
2	Which of these items concerning the operation of machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I? I, II, V, VI I, III, VI, VII II, IV, VI, VII II, III, V, VII	I, III, VI, VII
3	Under Marpol, the IOPP certificate of any ship must be supplemented by _____ a record of construction and equipment. compliance certificates for the oily water separator, incinerator and sewage plant. endorsements for annual surveys. endorsements for intermediate surveys.	a record of construction and equipment.
4	OPA 90 response times for salvage and lightering contractors are calculated from the time of _____ the occurrence of the oil spill. the call out. reaching the pollution scene. the go ahead signal from the Coast Guard.	the occurrence of the oil spill.
5	When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which of following priority sequences to be considered: Stop pumps - report - clean up? Clean up - report - stop pumps? Report - stop pumps - clean up? Stop pumps - clean up - report?	Stop pumps - report - clean up?
6	Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than _____ % of the tank capacity. 2.5 1 5 3	3
7	What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers? To reduce the shear forces on tankers. To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers. To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in the event of grounding or collision. To reduce the bending moments on tankers.	To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in the event of grounding or collision.
8	Existing oil tankers which comply at all times with SBT draught and trim requirements without the use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with SBT requirements in full, provided which of these items apply? II, IV, V III, IV , VI II, V, VI I, II, VI	II, V, VI
9	The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged in specific trades, provided reception facilities are existing in ports. What document is to be endorsed? The ship`s IOPP certificate The charter party The oil record book The bill of lading	The ship`s IOPP certificate
10	What is the meaning of a "harmful substance" under Marpol? Hydrocarbons in any form Petroleum products and petrochemicals Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities. Oils and fuels	Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.

Pollution Prevention. Test 18

#	Question	Right answers
1	One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped with _____ two separate slop tanks. an oil content meter. segregated ballast tanks and PL. a crude oil washing system.	an oil content meter.
2	According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of which oil group may involve underwater recovery? Group V Group IV Group I Group III	Group V
3	If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to immobilise the ship, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW? The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply The requirements for SBT do not apply	The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
4	Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the fore peak tank? Only fishing vessels Only tugs and fishing vessels No, not on any vessel Only tugs	No, not on any vessel
5	The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed _____ 120 litres per nautical mile 30 litres per nautical mile 75 litres per nautical mile 100 litres per nautical mile	30 litres per nautical mile
6	Under which conditions are fore peak tanks, after peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of CBT`s for tankers? Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15 ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system Provided an oil separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board	Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system
7	Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that _____ the tanker is within a Designated Zone the tanker is not within a Designated Zone the tanker is within a Special Area. the tanker is not within a Special Area	the tanker is not within a Special Area
8	What is the meaning of the term " Combination Carrier "? A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk A cargo ship that has product oil tanks, example palm oil tanks A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, example reefer-container, log-bulk etc. A ship designed to carry either oil products or crude oil in bulk or in parcels	A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
9	Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited, except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that _____ the tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land. the tanker is more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest land. the tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land. the tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land.	the tanker is more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest land.
10	If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity of _____ or more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers apply. 500 cubic metres 100 T 200 cubic metres 400 T	200 cubic metres

Pollution Prevention. Test 19

#	Question	Right answers
1	If an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW? The requirements for SBT, Pl and CBT do not apply The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply The requirement for SBT does not apply The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply	The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
2	Which of the areas listed are designated as Special Areas by Marpol Annex I ? I, II, VI, VIII, IX, XI, XIII, XIV II, III, V, VI, X, XII, XIII, XIV I, II, III, VI, X, XI, XIII, XIV I, III, VI, IX, X, XI, XIII, XIV	I, II, VI, VIII, IX, XI, XIII, XIV
3	For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard? Three years Six months Two years Four years	Three years
4	Existing tankers in specific trades do not need to comply with SBT, CBT and COW requirements provided that which of these items apply? II, IV, V, VI, VII, IX II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII I, II, V, VI, VII, VIII I, II, III, IV, VIII, IX	I, II, V, VI, VII, VIII
5	According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture "? A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm A mixture with any oil content A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm	A mixture with any oil content
6	For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not exceed _____ of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part. 1/15000 1/25000 1/30000 1/10000	1/30000
7	Every tanker operating a Crude Oil Washing System shall be provided with an approved _____ Operations and Equipment Manual. Tank Cleaning Manual. Safety Operation Manual. Cargo Loading Manual.	Operations and Equipment Manual.
8	Requirements for Crude Oil Washing demand that a number of cargo tanks be washed prior to each ballast voyage. What number of tanks are specified? All tanks designated as cargo tanks. Sufficient to increase the ship`s draught by at least 3 metres and not exceed a 1 metre trim by the stern. Sufficient to take account of the ship`s trading pattern, so that ballast water is not put into tanks that have not been crude oil washed. One third of the number of all tanks.	Sufficient to take account of the ship`s trading pattern, so that ballast water is not put into tanks that have not been crude oil washed.
9	For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks, which of these items apply? III, V VI, VIII I, III, VI, VII I, II, VI, VIII II, IV, VI, VII	II, IV, VI, VII
10	According to Regulation 13.3.b, in which of these exceptional cases can ballast water be loaded into cargo holds of tankers? I, III, VI I, III, IV II, IV, VI III, V, VI	I, III, IV

Pollution Prevention. Test 20

#	Question	Right answers
1	Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book without delay and _____ when the operations are completed, will be signed by the Officer in charge during the time of the operation. the Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be countersigned by the Master. will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each completed page will be signed by the Master. the entries match operations completed, after which it is signed by the Master.	will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each completed page will be signed by the Master.
2	No oil discharge monitoring equipment is to be fitted on tankers if trading in specific areas or within 50 miles from the nearest land, provided that which of these items apply? I, II, III, V, VII I, II, III, IV, VII I, II, III, IV, V I, III, IV, V, VIII	I, II, III, IV, V
3	Which of these are the requirements for an Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System? II, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX I, II, III, IV, VI, VII I, II III, V, VI, VII, VIII	I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX
4	At least two slop tanks are required for _____ new oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above. new oil tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above. new oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above. new and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt.	new oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.
5	In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks? Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from the cargo tanks. Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities. Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separation filter. Any tank separated from the ship`s side by a distance of at least 3 metres.	Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from the cargo tanks.
6	New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise? IV, V I, II II, V III, V	IV, V
7	Regulation 23 of Marpol Annex I is concerned with the hypothetical outflow of oil from tankers. What is understood by this? The oil discharged into the sea in the case of side damage or bottom damage The outflow of oil via the pump room sea chests due to untight valve sets The total accumulated amount of oil discharged into the sea by a tanker The quantity of the oil spilt which may be caused due to main Cargo pipe or connecting hose rupture during loading or discharging	The oil discharged into the sea in the case of side damage or bottom damage
8	Every oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be provided with an approved Dedicated Clean Ballast Operating Manual. Which of these items must be contained in the manual? III, IV, V, VI I, IV, V, VI I, II, III, IV I, II, III, V	I, IV, V, VI
9	You are on a vessel 15 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard? No, food waste can not be dumped overboard Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard	Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard
10	The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to _____ petroleum, animal and vegetable oils. black oil. diesel and kerosene fuels. petroleum oils.	petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.

Pollution Prevention. Test 21

#	Question	Right answers
1	Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargo oil or bunkering system not used during fuel transfer or cargo oil transfer must be secured _____ with a cement box. by locking the hydraulic actuators to the respective line valves. by securing the manual valves tight and padlocking the valve wheels. with a blank flange.	with a blank flange.
2	OPA 90 - if any telephone numbers listed in the Vessel Response Plan are wrong, the correct listings may be found in the USA by contacting _____ local directory assistance , 1 + area code + 5551212. the Oil Spill Removal Organisation. the National Response Centre. Ocean Routes.	local directory assistance , 1 + area code + 5551212.
3	Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oil spill should be followed _____ by obtaining feedback about the action taken. up in writing to facilitate clear communications. by the course of action; also, repeated verbal reports are to be made if new information is available. by obtaining feedback about the action taken and by repeated verbal reports are to be made if new information is available.	up in writing to facilitate clear communications.
4	Under OPA 90, the penalty for failure to immediately notify the appropriate U.S. Government agency of an oil spill is _____ partial liability. ten years in prison. unlimited liability. a fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison.	a fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison.
5	OPA 90 - the costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can _____ cost shipowners and operators their assets. lead to prosecution of those involved. All of the other options greatly exceed the cost of the oil itself.	All of the other options
6	MARPOL 73/78 - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is discoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take? Stop discharge. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding water. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not yet in force.	Stop discharge.
7	Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are _____ vegetable oils. non-persistent oils. animal oils. persistent oils.	non-persistent oils.
8	You are on a vessel 60 nautical miles off the coast of the nearest land, Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ? Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard	No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard
9	MARPOL 73/78 - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. This annex is not yet in force, however, some Governments are practising these rules. What do you understand by the word "Sewage"? Mixture of sea water/oil. Waste from galley. Waste from synthetic materials. Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.	Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
10	For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be included? Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams. Segregated ballast tanks only	Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.

Pollution Prevention. Test 22

#	Question	Right answers
1	Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers is prohibited except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is fitted? Interface oily water detector Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system	Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment
2	For an existing tanker of 40,000 tons dwt and above, satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should the designation be on the IOPP certificate? Product carrier Crude oil tanker Crude oil / petrochemical tanker Crude oil / product carrier	Crude oil / product carrier
3	You are in a position as illustrated. What is the instantaneous oil discharge limit according to MARPOL ? 60 L/nm 120 L/nm 30 L/nm 15 L/nm	30 L/nm
4	Under OPA 90, when reporting an oil spill to the National Response Center and a recorded message is heard and you are placed on hold, your alternate contact should be _____ the nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port. your head office. the local directory operator. the National Transportation Safety Board.	the nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port.
5	Under OPA 90 regulations, actuation of Tier I response resources must be made _____ after discovery of discharge. within 45 minutes within two hours immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes within one hour	immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes
6	What is definition on clean water? Water with less than 15 ppm vitiation of oil Water with less than 45 ppm vitiation of oil Water with less than 1 % vitiation of oil There isn	Water with less than 15 ppm vitiation of oil
7	Is there any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues? There is 5 special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues There is 4 special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues There is 3 special area the Baltic, Mediterranean and the Black sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues There isn	There is 5 special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
8	Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea voyage? Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. There isn Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage.	Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage.
9	How many annexes do we find in MARPOL 73/78 and what is the content of annex 1? We find 5 annexes in MARPOL 73/78 and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil We find 5 annexes in MARPOL 73/78 and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by sewage We find 4 annexes in MARPOL 73/78 and annex 1 regulations for the prevention of pollution by garbage We find 1 annexes in MARPOL 73/78 and annex 1regulations for the prevention of pollution by chemicals.	We find 5 annexes in MARPOL 73/78 and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
10	What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol? Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship. Spilling, leaking or escaping from the ship. Dumping or disposal from the ship. Any release how ever caused.	Any release how ever caused.

Pollution Prevention. Test 23

#	Question	Right answers
1	On gas carriers there are two gases we must try to avoid leaking out to the atmosphere, who are those gases? The two gases is carbon monoxide CO and carbon dioxide CO2 The two gases is propane and butane The two gases Vinyl chloride VCM and Ammonia NH3 The two gases is Freon 22 and carbon monoxide	The two gases is Freon 22 and carbon monoxide
2	OPA 90 - three functions of the Incident Command staff are _____ fire fighting, lightering and salvage. command, control and evacuation. incineration, recycling and disposal. information, safety and liaison.	information, safety and liaison.
3	How do the human body absorb toxicants? The body absorb toxicants only through the aliment channel when eating The body absorb toxicants only if we wear wrong clothes The human body absorb toxicants through respiration, skin and the aliment channel The body absorb toxicants through respiration if the leak is big enough	The human body absorb toxicants through respiration, skin and the aliment channel
4	OPA 90 - who is responsible for the supervision of cleanup until the Qualified Individual arrives on the scene? the person in charge of oil transfer. the local agent. the ship`s staff. the Environment Protection Agency.	the person in charge of oil transfer.
5	OPA 90 regulations are effective up to _____ miles offshore. 50 10 200 150	200
6	In what publication do we find information regarding the kind of personal safety equipment we must have onboard on gas carriers? In the deck and engine log book In the company quality manual In MARPOL annex II In SOLAS chapter II-2, rule 17 and in the IGC code	In SOLAS chapter II-2, rule 17 and in the IGC code
7	According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception? Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore. Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore. Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore. Comminuted (ground up) food waste beyond 12 miles offshore.	Comminuted (ground up) food waste beyond 12 miles offshore.
8	OPA 90 - the three types of boom are _____ light, heavy and double extra strength. fire fighting, lightering and salvage. heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent. light, medium and low.	heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent.
9	Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board? In the ship`s office At a place where it is readily available In the Master`s cabin On the bridge	At a place where it is readily available
10	A new oil tanker of 70,000 dwt and above, satisfying the requirements of SBT, may be designed as a _____ on the IOPP certificate. crude oil / petrochemical tanker crude oil / product carrier crude oil tanker product oil carrier	crude oil / product carrier

Pollution Prevention. Test 24

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the meaning of TLV and what unit do we use on it? TLV means the maximum limit of polluted atmosphere where people can work and the unit are parts pr million ppm TLV is threshold limit value and the unit is percent volume TLV is threshold limit value and the unit is parts pr million ppm TLV means the minimum limit of polluted atmosphere where people can work and the unit are parts pr million ppm	TLV is threshold limit value and the unit is parts pr million ppm
2	A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he has met the planning criteria of OPA 90 by _____ contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines for each area in which the ship is trading. having response equipment on board. trading only in high volume ports. employing an OSRO.	contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines for each area in which the ship is trading.
3	How would an existing oil tanker of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate? As a product carrier As a crude oil tanker As a crude oil / product carrier As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker	As a crude oil / product carrier
4	Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that _____ the tanker is en route. the tanker is loaded. the tanker is in ballast condition. the tanker is tank cleaning.	the tanker is en route.
5	For existing tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more than _____ of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part. 1/50000 1/100000 1/15000 1/25000	1/15000
6	There is potential for pollution when starting to take ballast on non-SBT tankers, because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this, which notice should be placed on the ballast pump? ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION	START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION
7	According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean? A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979 All of the other options apply A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995 A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30 June 1976	All of the other options apply
8	With reference to OPA 90, which major port is not a high volume port? Mobile Port Angeles New York St. Croix	Mobile
9	Which method of oil cleanup is NOT usually allowed? Using sinking agents Employing a boom Using suction equipment Using skimmers	Using sinking agents
10	In MARPOL 73/78 Reg. 10, the wording "Special Areas" is mentioned in connection with conventional oil tankers. What do you understand by this term? Special area is certain areas like Red Sea, Black Sea, Baltic Sea, Mediterranean, Gulf area, Antartic area. Special area is within 50 miles from nearest land. Special area is within 12 miles from nearest land. Special area is within 12 miles from coastline of USA including US Gulf.	Special area is certain areas like Red Sea, Black Sea, Baltic Sea, Mediterranean, Gulf area, Antartic area.

Pollution Prevention. Test 25

#	Question	Right answers
1	OPA 90 - most important in monitoring the loading of oil or the bunkering rate is _____ that the remote control gauging system is to be observed. to keep a close eye on the manifold pressure. to keep close radio contact with the jetty/barge. that tanks should be sounded very regularly.	that tanks should be sounded very regularly.
2	In some trades cargo hoses are carried onboard. These hoses are normally checked and tested annually. Amongst other testes and checks, a pressure test is done. The latter shall be done up to the working pressure of the hose plus: 100 % 25 % 10 % 50 %	25 %
3	For the calculation of hypothetical oil outflow, credit shall be given to double bottom tanks, full or empty, when cargo is carried in tanks above. Partial double bottoms are credited _____ as 0.3 times the percentage they cover. as non-existent. as providing sufficient protection for the tanks above. according to the percentage of the cargo tank they cover.	as non-existent.
4	OPA 90 - in the event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier _____ to keep an oil slick from escaping downstream. around cargo oil and bunkering manifolds. to avoid oil spilled on the deck from escaping overboard via the fish plate openings. to contain small oil spills on the open deck.	to keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.
5	The volume of any one centre tank on a tanker shall not exceed _____ cubic metres? 55,000 40,000 45,000 50,000	50,000
6	Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what? Plugging the scuppers Driving wooden plugs into the vents Closing the lids on the vents Plugging the sounding pipes	Plugging the scuppers
7	The oil record book for cargo/ballast operations on tankers shall be completed, on a tank to tank basis, whenever which of these operations has taken place? I, II, III, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI I, II, III, V, VI, VIII, X, XI, XII, XIII I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X I, II, IV, V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII	I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X
8	MARPOL 73/78 - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore.2 days after departure, you like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct procedures in this connection? Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering equipment without calling the bridge. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge directly overboard. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oilywater separating and filtering equipment.	Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oilywater separating and filtering equipment.
9	One of the following arguments is not valid regarding discharge of oil/oily mix into sea: The lower speed the higher ratio of oil/oily water can be discharged? Rate of discharge regarding oily water is not to exceed 30 litters/nautical mile? Tankers are restricted to have a monitor/control system and a slop tank? When discharging oil/oily water, the vessel`s position must be minimum 50 nm off any shores?	The lower speed the higher ratio of oil/oily water can be discharged?
10	A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt, NOT fitted with SBT and PL, should be designated as a _____ on the IOPP certificate. petrochemical tanker crude oil / product carrier product carrier crude oil tanker	product carrier

Pollution Prevention. Test 26

#	Question	Right answers
1	A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above, satisfying the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with COW, should be designated as a _____ on the IOPP certificate. crude oil / product carrier crude oil tanker petrochemical tanker product carrier	product carrier
2	A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons deadweight and above, which satisfies the requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with protective location as well as COW, may be designated as a _____ petrochemical / product carrier. crude oil tanker. crude oil / product carrier. product carrier.	crude oil / product carrier.
3	Penalties under the law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be _____ imposed by all countries, the severity depending on where the violation occurs. in all cases most severe. imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution. adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs.	adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs.
4	Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea? Double hulls 15 ppm oil filtering equipment A slop tank arrangement Segregated ballast tanks	A slop tank arrangement
5	Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required in this connection? Sludge separating tank. Oily-water separating equipment only. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both. Oil fitting equipment only.	Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both.
6	Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the exception? If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptured, the fuel tank may be filled with ballast if stability requires this. For exceptionally long voyages, when the ship`s bunkers are depleted and weather conditions are deteriorating. In the event of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for a long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats.	Ships with special nature of trade which stay for a long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats.
7	What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ? To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E None of the mentioned	To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations
8	What does the "instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content " mean, according to Marpol? The total quantity of oil discharged, divided by the mileage covered during the time of discharge by the ship The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600 The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant, divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant	The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant, divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant
9	Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation? To avoid pollution. To relieve the master. To inform the authorities. To restrict pollution.	To avoid pollution.
10	Which of these design requirements must be met by oil filtering equipment fitted on ships of 10,000 grt and above? I, II, III, IV II, III, V, VII I, III, V, VI I, III, VI, VII	I, II, III, IV

Pollution Prevention. Test 27

#	Question	Right answers
1	Under OPA.90, salvage, fire fighting and lightering contractors must _____ be contractually pre-arranged by Owners or Operators. have tractor tugs available. be members of the U.S. Salvage Association. be under contract to the US Coast Guard.	be contractually pre-arranged by Owners or Operators.
2	An oil spill removal organisation that can demonstrate a 40,000 barrel per day recovery capability under OPA 90 is classified as _____ Tier 3. Level "E ". Tier 1. Level "A ".	Level "E ".
3	MARPOL 73/78 - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal? 12 miles This is prohibited 3 miles 25 miles	12 miles
4	Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, may be fitted with oil fitting equipment, complying with Reg.16 (7) of MARPOL 73/78 for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum "Ppm" of oily-water mixture to pass through the filter? 15 ppm 100 ppm 30 ppm 60 ppm/n.m	15 ppm
5	The disposal of plastics at sea is _____ allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coast. allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor. allowed anywhere outside the designated Special Areas. strictly prohibited.	strictly prohibited.
6	The entries in the Oil Record Book must be _____ in the language of the crew and in English or French. in the official language of the Flag State and in English or French. in any language comprehensible by the Port State Control officers. in the language of the Captain and in English or French.	in the official language of the Flag State and in English or French.
7	Which Marpol Annex deals with the Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Oil? Annex II Annex IV Annex V Annex I	Annex I
8	The Garbage Record Book must be open for inspection at all times and kept for a minimum of _____ two years. five years. six months. one year.	two years.
9	Which of the following pumps is not allowed to have a direct overboard connection to the sea? Cargo Hold Bilge Pump Sludge Pump Ballast Water Pumps Engine Room Bilge Pump	Sludge Pump
10	Which of the following is not a "Special Area" according to MARPOL Regulation 10? Baltic Sea area Red Sea area Caribbean Sea area Mediterranean Sea area including the Black Sea	Caribbean Sea area

Pollution Prevention. Test 28

#	Question	Right answers
1	Cross connections between the fuel and ballast systems are _____ . allowed at the fuel system manifold on the main deck. totally prohibited. allowed at the ballast system manifold in the engine room. allowed at the fuel system manifold in the engine room.	totally prohibited.
2	In the USA any food waste being put ashore must be delivered in _____ biodegradable sacks. plastic bags. cardboard boxes. sealed metal containers.	biodegradable sacks.
3	MARPOL Annex V came into effect from the 1st July 1997, for new ships, and from 1st July 1998 for all other vessels. It affects ships _____ of 150 tonnes and above. of 1500 tonnes and above. carrying 12 or more passengers. of 400 tonnes and above.	of 400 tonnes and above.
4	Which MARPOL Annex deals with the Regulations for the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk? Annex III Annex V Annex I Annex II	Annex II
5	Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that _____ should personally supervise all bunkering operations. a responsible person the Master the Chief Engineer the 2nd Engineer	a responsible person
6	Bunkering procedures for all ships require that _____ communication should be maintained with the shore/barge staff in charge of the transfer. occasional intermittent continuous frequent	continuous
7	Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch is informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because _____ . appropriate precautions have to be taken by the deck department. the bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put on stand-by. the time needs to be recorded exactly. he is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.	appropriate precautions have to be taken by the deck department.
8	According to the MEPC, Circular No. 235, issued by the IMO, entitled "Guidelines for systems for handling oily wastes in machinery spaces of ships", a return line to the bilge or holding tank is _____ required for ships of 10,000 GRT and above. strongly recommended for all ships. required for all ships. left to be fitted at Owner`s discretion.	strongly recommended for all ships.
9	Ships may only discharge processed bilge water from machinery spaces into the sea if certain very specific criteria are being met. Which of those listed below is correct? The ship is proceeding en route. The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 100 ppm. The ship has in operation equipment as required by Regulation 16(5) of Annex I to MARPOL. The ship is sailing within a special area.	The ship has in operation equipment as required by Regulation 16(5) of Annex I to MARPOL.
10	The term "segregated ballast" means _____ none of the other options. a ballast system completely separated from the fuel oil system. a ballast system completely separated from the cargo oil system. a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil systems.	a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil systems.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	Why should a CO2 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas? It may explode when exposed to heat It will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available It will increase the oxygen present in the confined area to a dangerous level It will not operate effectively in confined areas	It will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available
2	You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled room wearing BA. How would you conduct this search? Proceed to the approximate centre of the room and then carry out the search on a circular pattern. Proceed straight ahead to the far bulkhead and then carry out a left or right hand search as appropriate Carry out a right or left hand search and proceed carefully feeling the area in front with the foot and using the back of the free hand to check the area in front. As soon as you enter carry out a right or left hand search by placing the appropriate hand onto the bulhead and then follow the bulkhead round as quickly as possible.	Carry out a right or left hand search and proceed carefully feeling the area in front with the foot and using the back of the free hand to check the area in front.
3	A pan on the galley stove containing oil catches fire, which of the following should NOT be used on this type of fire? Cover pan with fire blanket and switch of heat source. Raise the alarm, close galley door and wait for the fire teams to arrive. Use water extinguisher to put out the fire. Cover pan with lid and switch of heat source.	Use water extinguisher to put out the fire.
4	On a fire patrol at night you see smoke coming from a closed cabin door. What action should you take first? Activate the nearest fire alarm button and advise bridge of the location of the fire. Get the nearest fire extinguisher and then open the door to see what the situation is. Take a look inside the cabin to see what the situation is. As most people are sleeping, call a friend and ask him to assist in putting out the fire.	Activate the nearest fire alarm button and advise bridge of the location of the fire.
5	Which of the following should NOT be used on an electrical fire? Halon extinguisher Water extinguisher. Dry powder extinguisher. CO2 extinguisher.	Water extinguisher.
6	A cargo hold containing cargo such as nitrates,chlorates etc which produce oxygen under the influence of heat catches fire. How would you deal with this? With this type of material the hatches should not be battened down. The fire can only be extinguished by using large quantities of water. Close the hatches and use the fixed CO2 system Apply boundary cooling Close the hatches, apply boundary cooling and allow the fire to use up the oxygen and extinguish itself	With this type of material the hatches should not be battened down. The fire can only be extinguished by using large quantities of water.
7	Whilst in the Engine room you hear the CO2 release alarm, what action if any should you take. Leave the engine room as quickly as possible, closing all doors behind you. Proceed to the engine control room and call the bridge for further instructions. Take no action as it is probably someone testing the system, as the fire alarm has not been sounded and the engine room is not on fire. As CO2 can not kill you, secure present work and proceed out of engine room.	Leave the engine room as quickly as possible, closing all doors behind you.
8	What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be provided on cargo ships of 1000 GRT and above? 4 2 1 3	2
9	Once the fire is contained, the master needs to evaluate the best strategy for the next stage. This might include a number of actions. In your opinion which action does NOT belong? Other means of control Keeping the fire contained The use of fixed installations to put it out Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings	Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings
10	What are class "C" bulkheads? Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials but do not meet any of the requirements relative to smoke and flame nor limitations relative to temperature rise. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the standard fire test for 15 minutes. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the standard fire test for 30 minutes. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the standard fire test for 45 minutes.	Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials but do not meet any of the requirements relative to smoke and flame nor limitations relative to temperature rise.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	If you were put in charge of a fire team what is the minimum number of men wearing BA sets that you would allow to enter a smoke filled compartment? 2 men 3 men 4 men 1 man	2 men
2	In a smoke filled alleyway were will the cleanest air be found, and how should you proceed out? Near to the deck, crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible. It will be the same in all parts, therefore I would just leave as quickly as possible. Sit and wait for the rescue party. Towards the upper part, stand as tall as possible and walk out.	Near to the deck, crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible.
3	What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers that must be carried on ships of 1000 GRT and above? 9 5 3 7	5
4	What class of fire is a smoldering fire of wood, textiles, paper and other carbonaceous materials? Class B Class C Class D Class A	Class A
5	Welding and use of open flames on board tankers( without COW and IGS) in operation are subject to regulations laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the listed requirements regarding washing and gas freeing before hot work in cargo tanks corresponds to these regulations? Gas measurings can be carried out by all deck officers. One type approved explosimeter shall be used for gas measuring. Hatches to not adjacent tanks which has not been cleaned or inerted shall be kept open during work. All cargo tanks, pump rooms and cofferdams shall be examined by type approved two explosimeters.	All cargo tanks, pump rooms and cofferdams shall be examined by type approved two explosimeters.
6	Where in accommodation spaces shall smoke detectors be located? (SOLAS II-2/13.2.2) In messrooms, public lounges and other public rooms Near ventilation ducts throughout the accommodation spaces In stairways, corridors and escape routes In all crew and passenger cabins	In stairways, corridors and escape routes
7	You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled compartment wearing BA. At what stage should you start to make your way out of the compartment? 15 minutes after starting to use the set as this leaves you with five minutes air left. Wait for the appropriate signal on your safety line as the personnel outside will be keeping a track of the time you have spent inside. Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach your work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve. Wait until the BA set warning whistle sounds.	Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach your work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve.
8	For fire to occur, the three elements found in the "Fire Triangle" must be present. These are heat, air and _____ spark fuel flame electricity	fuel
9	What action should be taken first when discovering a fire on board? Go to your emergency muster station. Activate a fire alarm. Look for the nearest fire extinguisher. Go to your cabin and gather your belongings.	Activate a fire alarm.
10	Which of these fire extinguishing media is preferred to fight a fire in an electrical installation (eg. the main switchboard)? Sprinkler. Water fog. Powder. Foam.	Powder.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	On fires involving burning liquids, which of these extinguishers is considered most effective? CO2. Water. Dry Powder. Foam.	Foam.
2	Welding and use of open flames on board tankers in operation are subject to regulation laid down by the Maritime Directorate. During preparations for welding or hot works, the following item shall always be checked: Working performance and capacity of ventilating system. Inert gas composition. Type of oil or gas chemicals having been carried in the actual tank and the adjacent tanks. Cleaning and venting methods and systems.	Type of oil or gas chemicals having been carried in the actual tank and the adjacent tanks.
3	Welding and use of open flames on board tankers in operation are subject to regulation laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the listed requirements regarding washing and gas freeing before hot work in cargo tanks corresponds to these regulations? All results of gas measures and examinations shall be entered in the ship`s deck log. Gas measuring and examination in connection with cleaning and gas freeing shall be carried out by the safety delegate. Personnel carrying out gas measuring and examination shall have completed an approved training course later than 18. September, 1992. Gas measuring and examination in connection with cleaning and gas freeing shall be carried out by an officer.	Gas measuring and examination in connection with cleaning and gas freeing shall be carried out by the safety delegate.
4	Welding and use of open flames on board tankers in operation are subject to regulation laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the listed requirements regarding washing and gas freeing before hot work in cargo tanks corresponds to these regulations? In case of major work the fire main shall be under pressure. During loading and discharging of liquified gases and cargo with a flashpoint below 60 The ventilation system shall have a capacity of at least two changes of air per hour for work in enclosed spaces. Suitable fire extinguishing equipment shall always be available during hot work. For ships provided with inert gas system minor welding work may be permitted.	In case of major work the fire main shall be under pressure.
5	Welding and use of open flames on board tankers in operation are subject to regulation laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the listed requirements regarding washing and gas freeing before hot work in cargo tanks corresponds to these regulations?. The ventilation system shall have a capacity of at least two changes of air per hour for work in enclosed spaces. For ships provided with inert gas system minor welding work may be permitted. During loading and discharging of liquified gases and cargo with a flashpoint below 60 No welding or hot work on board ships carrying cargo with flashpoint below 60	No welding or hot work on board ships carrying cargo with flashpoint below 60
6	In addition to cargo & machinery spaces which other spaces if any have to be fitted with an approved fixed fire fighting system on cargo ships? Rope store No additional fixed systems are required. Paint store Focsle store	Paint store
7	Which ships shall be provided with international shore connection for supply of water as extinguishing media? (SOLAS II-2/19.1) Passenger ships of 1000 tons gross and upwards Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers Tankers All ships of 500 tons gross and upwards	All ships of 500 tons gross and upwards
8	Where can shore side personnel find necessary information on ship`s fire control systems in an emergency situation ? From the duty officer. A copy of the fire control plan is permanently posted in prominently marked locations onboard ships. A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and prominently marked container outside the deckhouse or accommodation. Information is to be given by the owners through the nearest rescue centre.	A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and prominently marked container outside the deckhouse or accommodation.
9	Which spaces, in regard to fire protection, shall be separated from the rest of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.2) Cargo compartments Storage rooms for inflammable materials Accommodation Machinery spaces	Accommodation
10	What type of construction material should be avoided regarding fire protection purposes? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.3) All plastic materials All composite materials All combustible materials All uncovered wooden materials	All combustible materials

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	Sanitary-, ballast-, bilge- or general service pumps may be accepted as fire pumps provided: (SOLAS II-2/4.3.2) They are not normally used for pumping oil They are ready for use as fire pump at any time They can be started from a position outside the engine room They are fitted with automatic start connected to the fire alarm	They are not normally used for pumping oil
2	In case of diesel driven fire pumps, for how long period shall the fuel tank capacity allow the pump to be run at full capacity? (SOLAS II-2/4.3.3.2.3) Three hours One hour Six hours Fifteen hours	Three hours
3	What quantity of reserve fuel is to be available for diesel driven fire pumps outside of the main machinery space? (SOLAS II-2/4.3.3.2.4) 40 litters Sufficient amount for six hours operation at full capacity Sufficient amount for fifteen hours operation at full capacity 20 litters	Sufficient amount for fifteen hours operation at full capacity
4	What information is found on a ship`s fire plan? The signal used on the ship to indicate there is a fire. The action to take if you heard the fire alarm. The duties of each crew member in case of fire The locations of various fire fighting appliances and equipment.	The locations of various fire fighting appliances and equipment.
5	All waste receptacles shall be of non-combustible materials, built and equipped with: (SOLAS II-2/18.5) Permanent means for lashing Rack for fire buckets No openings in sides and bottom Hinged self-closing cover	No openings in sides and bottom
6	According to SOLAS - for carbon dioxide fire-fighting systems in machinery spaces the fixed piping system shall be such that _____ 85 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes. 100 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 3 minutes. 70 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 2 minutes. 100 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes.	85 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes.
7	Three methods of fire protection regarding internal divisional bulkheading may be adopted in accommodation and service spaces in cargo ships. Which of the given methods do not correspond to present rules? (SOLAS II-2/42.5) Construction of all internal bulkheads of class "A" divisions Construction of all internal bulkheads of non-combustible class "B" or "C" divisions Fitting of an automatic sprinkler, fire-detection and alarm system for the detection and extinction of fire in all spaces in which fire might be expected to originate Fitting of a fixed fire-detection and alarm system in all spaces where fire might be expected to originate. No accommodation space bounded by an "A" or "B" class division to exceed 500 m?	Construction of all internal bulkheads of class "A" divisions
8	"A" class (fire) divisions are those divisions formed by bulkheads and decks. Which of the following requirements do not comply with the rules? (SOLAS II-2/3.3) Preventing passage of smoke and flame to the end of a one hour standard test Constructed of steel or other equivalent material Suitably stiffened Insulated on both sides with approved non-combustible material	Insulated on both sides with approved non-combustible material
9	"C" class (fire) divisions shall meet one of the listed requirements: (SOLAS II-2/3.5) Constructed of ignition resistant material Constructed of non-combustible material Constructed by steel or equivalent material Constructed of low flame spread material	Constructed of non-combustible material
10	Where will the ship`s officers find necessary information regarding the ship`s fire protection arrangement, fire-detection equipment and fire extinguishing appliances? (SOLAS II-2/20.1) In special instruction and information folder at all fire control stations In permanently exhibited fire control plans In permanently exhibited muster list In permanent exhibited alarm instructions	In permanently exhibited fire control plans

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	In what language/languages shall the fire control plans/folders (or copies of plans and folders) be? (SOLAS II-2/20.1) The Flag State language The English language The Flag State language with copies in English The Flag State language with copies in English or French	The Flag State language with copies in English or French
2	Where shall shore side fire-fighting personnel find necessary information on the ship`s fire control in an emergency situation? (SOLAS II-2/20.2) Information to be given by the ship`s Owner through the nearest Rescue Coordination Centre The Captain of the ship is responsible for giving the necessary information of the ship`s control plan Copy of fire control plans/folders to be posted in a prominently marked localisation on the navigating bridge Copy of the fire control plans/folders to be stored in a watertight prominently marked container outside the deck house	Copy of the fire control plans/folders to be stored in a watertight prominently marked container outside the deck house
3	Which of these extinguishing agents is it best to use on a fire involving a burning cabin that had been electrically isolated ? Foam. Water. Carbon dioxide (CO2). Dry Powder - Dry Chemical.	Water.
4	The duty engineer of a UMS ship is approached by a member of the ship`s staff, seeking permission to hang wet working clothes in the engine room to dry. Should he: Allow the clothes to be hung over a rail provided there is no electrical equipment directly below. Allow the clothes to be hung over rail next to the warm F.O. service tanks. Not allow the clothes to be hung anywhere in the unmanned machinery spaces. Allow the clothes to be hung over a rail anywhere.	Not allow the clothes to be hung anywhere in the unmanned machinery spaces.
5	Which fixed fire extinguishing medium is most commonly found in machinery spaces like the engine room? Water sprinkler system. Carbon Dioxide (CO2). Dry powder. High expansion foam.	Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
6	Under ISO standard 3941 (used mostly in Europe), a fire involving a flammable solid fuel would be classed as which of the following? Class C. Class D. Class A. Class B.	Class A.
7	Which of the following fuels has the lowest flash point? Kerosene Diesel fuel Coal Candle wax	Kerosene
8	What does A.F.F.F. stand for in relation to fire fighting? Aqueous Film Forming Foam. Active Fire Finishing Foam. Aqueous Fire Fighting Foam Anti Fire Frothing Foam.	Aqueous Film Forming Foam.
9	Which of the following types of breathing apparatus are most likely to be found onboard a modern ship? Oxygen Breathing Apparatus. Atmospheric Breathing Apparatus. Gas Mask type Breathing Apparatus. Compressed Air Breathing Apparatus.	Compressed Air Breathing Apparatus.
10	What do the words "spontaneously combustible" mean? The substance is very difficult to set alight, even when it is very hot. The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition. When this substance burns it burns completely and does not leave any residue or ash. When the substance burns it becomes very hot.	The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which of these extinguishers would not be very effective against a Class A fire? A.F.F.F. Dry Chemical. Water. Foam.	Dry Chemical.
2	Which of these is an example of a Class D fuel? Liquid. Gas. Metal. Electricity.	Metal.
3	Fuel flowing in a pipe is prone to which of the following ignition sources? Friction. Static electricity. High pressure action. Chemical reaction.	Static electricity.
4	What type of release is allowed for fixed gas fire extinguishing installations onboard? An automatic release system activated by fire alarms. Any automatic release system. A manually operated release only. An automatic release system activated by fire detectors.	A manually operated release only.
5	According to SOLAS - sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps may be used as fire pumps provided _____ they are ready for use as a fire pump at any time. they can be started from a position outside the engine room. they are fitted with an automatic start connected to the fire alarm. they are not normally used for pumping oils.	they are not normally used for pumping oils.
6	How many fireman`s outfits are required to be carried on tankers? At least two sets. At least one set. At least four sets. At least three sets.	At least four sets.
7	You are night duty officer on a ship under way when a fire in the crew accommodation is reported. What is the first action you would take? Sound the fire / general alarm signal. Run to the scene and fight the fire. Call the captain. Send the duty seaman down to inspect and report the situation.	Sound the fire / general alarm signal.
8	Which fire fighting system is the most efficient and with least side effects in the event of a fire in the engine room? The central foam extinguishing system. The sprinkler extinguishing system. The central CO2 extinguishing system. The powder extinguishing system.	The central CO2 extinguishing system.
9	What fixed and portable fire extinguishers are often found on gas tankers, because they are considered to be most effective with burning gas? Water. Foam. Dry Powder - Dry Chemical. CO2.	Dry Powder - Dry Chemical.
10	In addition to a fire suit, a fireman`s outfit also comprises breathing apparatus and a fireproof lifeline. According to SOLAS- how many such sets of fireman`s outfit are required to be carried by all ships? At least one. At least two. At least three. As required by the ship`s administration.	At least two.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	Where can ships` officers find information about the ship`s fire protection arrangements, fire detection and extinguishing equipment? In the wheel house. In a special instruction folder at all fire control stations. In permanently exhibited muster lists. In permanently exhibited fire plans.	In permanently exhibited fire plans.
2	A self contained Breathing Apparatus should contain at least 1200 litters of air. How long should this last a normal person who is not carrying out hard work? 15 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes	30 minutes
3	What is a Class B fire? A fire involving solid materials. A fire involving metals. A fire involving gases. A fire involving liquids or liquefied solids.	A fire involving liquids or liquefied solids.
4	Which of the following statements does not apply to fire doors in main vertical zone bulkheads and stairway enclosures in passenger ships? They shall be of the self closing type. If normally locked they do not have to be self closing. They shall be capable of being closed from a control station unless they are normally closed. They can have hold back hooks not subject to control station release providing the emergency plan details a person to close them.	They can have hold back hooks not subject to control station release providing the emergency plan details a person to close them.
5	In accommodation the automatic sprinklers shall come into operation within the temperature range: (SOLAS II-2/12.2.4) 80 - 90 68 - 79 48 - 55 56 - 67	68 - 79
6	Is there any conditions that influent on the efforts when organising the fire fighting? Where the fire break out, how many squads there is left, what is burning, distance to the fire station Distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade, what is burning, possibility to get water Where the fire break out, the ships mobility, distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade Where the fire break out, how many squads there is left, the strength of the fire, the ships mobility, what is burning and communication	Where the fire break out, how many squads there is left, the strength of the fire, the ships mobility, what is burning and communication
7	In pumprooms and pipe tunnels "flameproof" electric light fittings are generally fitted. This means that: Even if fire occurs, it will not consume the fitting? Gas may enter, but even if an explosion takes place the fittings is so strong that the explosion will be contained within it and will not be blow out? The fitting is completely gastight and no gas can enter into contact with the bulb and electric connections? The electrical supply will disconnect automatically in cases of fire?	Gas may enter, but even if an explosion takes place the fittings is so strong that the explosion will be contained within it and will not be blow out?
8	What is the number one job for the ship management team when fire break out? The ship management team must organise the fire squads and then the squads have to rescue missing personal The ship management team must fight the fire and then call the fire squads The ship management team must call the nearest fire brigade and police station The ship management team and the crew must evacuate the ship	The ship management team must organise the fire squads and then the squads have to rescue missing personal
9	On a UMS classed vessel the high pressure fuel pipes are covered with steel flexible shrouds with drainage.What is the main purpose of the protection ? To protect the pipes against mechanical damage. To protect personnel from high temp surface. To collect minor oil leakage. In case of bursting pipe, to avoid oil spray hitting adjacent high heat surfaces of exhaust pipes etc.	In case of bursting pipe, to avoid oil spray hitting adjacent high heat surfaces of exhaust pipes etc.
10	Fuel oil from a leaking fuel pipe has been collected in a drip tray under the boiler furnace.The oil is suddenly ignited by a backflash from the boiler burner.The boiler room is manned and the person present has the choice of various extinguishers. The fire is purely a surface fire. What would be the preferable extinguisher? Powder CO2 Water Any of the mentioned alternatives	Powder

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the maximum allowed suction head for the fire pump? 1.5 metres. 3 metres. 9 metres. 4.5 metres.	4.5 metres.
2	For fighting metal fires you should use _____ special dry powder foam CO2 water	special dry powder
3	What type of fire hose nozzles must be available on board? Dual purpose ( jet/spray type ). Dual purpose ( jet/spray ) type incorporating shutoff. Jet type. Spray type.	Dual purpose ( jet/spray ) type incorporating shutoff.
4	After smoking cigarettes they should be disposed of as follows: Disposed of in an ashtray and ensuring that it is extinguished. Dropped over the side only if you are certain they are extinguished. Dropped over the lee side only so that it cannot blow back on board Dropped into a waste bin.	Disposed of in an ashtray and ensuring that it is extinguished.
5	Oily rags and metal twist pose a particular fire hazard because: They are not a hazard unless ignited. They generate their own oxygen when ignited and are therefore difficult to extinguish. They are not a hazard. They are liable to spontaneous combustion.	They are liable to spontaneous combustion.
6	Where on board would you find out which fire sections are enclosed by "A" or "B" class divisions? On the fire control plan On the general arrangement plan On the capacity plan In the stability book	On the fire control plan
7	What is the minimum number of fire control plans that should be permanently stored in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse for the assistance of shoreside fire fighting personnel? Not required providing one set is available inside the accommodation At least two At least three At least one	At least one
8	Which of the following statements is NOT correct about high expansion foam? You can survive in H.E. foam by breaking the bubbles to release the air. You cannot survive in H.E. foam as the oxygen content is reduced. It extinguishes by smothering. It has only a limited cooling effect.	You cannot survive in H.E. foam as the oxygen content is reduced.
9	What is the only reliable way of checking that the CO2 cartridge in a "Dry Powder" extinguisher is full? Lift the extinguisher to check that it still has powder inside it. All of the alternatives are reliable methods. Remove the cartridge and weigh it as it has the full and empty weights stamped on it. Check if the seal on the extinguisher release handle is intact.	Remove the cartridge and weigh it as it has the full and empty weights stamped on it.
10	In fire-fighting, what does the term "boundary starvation" refer to? Mustering fire fighters and materials in the area near the fire Closing doors and hatches at the boundary of a fire Cooling the area around a fire to stop it spreading Removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further	Removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 9

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is meant by the term "self ignition temperature (S.I.T.)? The lowest temperature that a liquid will start giving off vapours. The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they will ignite and then go out if an external ignition source is applied. The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they will ignite and keep burning if an external ignition source is applied. The lowest temperature where the vapours given off will automatically ignite without the presence of an external ignition source.	The lowest temperature where the vapours given off will automatically ignite without the presence of an external ignition source.
2	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. During ongoing inspection on work in cargo tanks, the gas concentration shall be measured: At two levels for three places in the tank. At one level for at least two places in the tank. At three levels for at least two places in the tank. At three levels at one point close to the working area.	At three levels for at least two places in the tank.
3	What other purposes may a fixed fire-detection and alarm system be used for, in addition to fire indication? (SOLAS II-2/13.1.14) Automatic closing of fire doors Automatic activation of sprinkler system Controlled closing of fire doors None	Controlled closing of fire doors
4	Where shall manually operated call points in fixed fire-detection and alarm systems be located in accommodation spaces? (SOLAS II-2/13.2.1) At exits and in corridors In all crew and passenger cabins In messrooms, public lounges and other public rooms In stairways and escape routes	At exits and in corridors
5	What types of fire extinguishers shall be used in the engine room? Any fire extinguisher with a weight of less than 100 lbs. Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2 only. Fire extinguishers of the handy-size types only. Fire extinguishers filled with fresh water only.	Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2 only.
6	Some cargoes, such as certain types of coal, can heat themselves up to a temperature where they can automatically ignite. What is this process called? Spontaneous combustion. Nuclear fission. Biomass conduction. Biological heating.	Spontaneous combustion.
7	Ideally the adjustable jet/spray nozzle on a hose should be used as _____ a spray of arc 60 degrees a spray of arc 90 degrees a jet a spray of arc 30 degrees	a spray of arc 60 degrees
8	Look at the diagram (Chemistry of Liquefied Gases) and say which gas has the widest flammable range. ethylene butane methane propane	ethylene
9	Which of the following does not need to be done right after a fire drill? Have a debriefing with all members of the safety committee. Note any defects in the equipment for repair or replacement. Return all the equipment to its correct place. Recharge extinguishers and compressed air bottles.	Have a debriefing with all members of the safety committee.
10	Which of the following are frequent causes of fires in accommodation? Covering of electric fires with blankets Overloading electric plugs 1 Smoking in bed. 2 Covering of electric fires with blankets. 3 Overloading electric plugs. Smoking in bed	1 Smoking in bed. 2 Covering of electric fires with blankets. 3 Overloading electric plugs.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 10

#	Question	Right answers
1	What percentage of air is made up by oxygen? 21% 78% 100% 4%	21%
2	Which of the following conducts heat well? Styrofoam (Polystyrene). Wood. Steel. Paper.	Steel.
3	What fixed fire fighting medium do we normally use in the engine room, pump room and other spaces? The fixed fire fighting medium in engine room, pump room etc is foam The fixed fire fighting medium in engine room, pump room etc is water The fixed fire fighting medium in engine room, pump room etc is chemical powder The fixed fire fighting medium in engine room, pump room etc. is Carbon Dioxide CO2, Halon or foam	The fixed fire fighting medium in engine room, pump room etc. is Carbon Dioxide CO2, Halon or foam
4	Where do we find information regarding fire extinguishers, fire doors, remotes release buttons, fire equipment etc. onboard a ship? Information related to fire fighting equipment do we find in the engine log book Information related to fire fighting equipment do we find on the bridge Information related to fire fighting equipment, release systems etc. do we find in ship fire plan. Information related to fire fighting equipment do we find in the ship drawings	Information related to fire fighting equipment, release systems etc. do we find in ship fire plan.
5	Mention some important thoughts for what you have to do when you recognise that fire break out onboard. Commence fighting the fire, call the persons around the fire and join the fire squad Go to the lifeboat start the motor then call the duty officer and commence fight the fire Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, call the persons around the fire and join the fire squad Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, organise and commence fighting the fire	Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, call the persons around the fire and join the fire squad
6	Where do we find information about the ships fire preparedness? Information about the ships fire preparedness do we find in the company QA manual Information about the ships fire preparedness do we find at the fire station Information about the ships fire preparedness do we find in the alarm instruction Information about the ships fire preparedness do we find in the deck log book	Information about the ships fire preparedness do we find in the alarm instruction
7	When is the risk of fire greatest? When the vessel is in port, particularly dry-dock. When the vessel is in hot, dry climates. When the vessel is in dense traffic situations. When the vessel is at sea in stormy weather.	When the vessel is in port, particularly dry-dock.
8	If there is an isolated fire on the poop deck, where should the master take control from? The ship`s office The emergency headquarters The bridge The incident site	The bridge
9	In which compartments are halogenated hydrocarbons not allowed as fire-extinguishing media? (SOLAS II-2/5.3.1) Engine rooms Pump rooms Cargo holds for passenger cars and other empty vehicles General cargo holds	General cargo holds
10	Where may as a general rule pressure containers for gas fire-extinguishing medium be kept? (SOLAS II-2/5.1.10) In cold storages Outside the space which is to be protected In the space which is to be protected Above bulkhead deck	Outside the space which is to be protected

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 11

#	Question	Right answers
1	What type of fire-extinguishing medium release is allowed for fixed gas fire-extinguishing installations? (SOLAS II-2/5.1.8) Automatic release system activated by fire detectors Automatic release system activated by the ship`s fire alarm Manual operated release system only Automatic release system incorporating alarm system for manned compartments	Manual operated release system only
2	What types of gases are not allowed as fire-extinguishing medium for fixed gas fire-extinguishing system aboard ships? (SOLAS II-2/5.1.1) Halogenated hydrocarbon gases Fuel combustion gases Toxic gases Carbondioxide gases	Toxic gases
3	What type of nozzles for fire hoses shall be used aboard ships? (SOLAS II-2/4.8.4) Dual purpose (jet/spray) type Spray type Jet type Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating shutoff	Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating shutoff
4	What number of fire hoses is required for cargo ships of 1000 tons gross and upwards? (SOLAS II-2/4.7.4.1) One hose for each 30 meter length of ship plus one spare. Hoses for engine and boiler room in addition One for each fire hydrant One hose for every second fire hydrant Two hoses for each vertical fire zone	One hose for each 30 meter length of ship plus one spare. Hoses for engine and boiler room in addition
5	As a general rule, where would you expect to find a portable fire extinguisher in any space? There is no such standard practice. Near the middle of the space Under a porthole or window Near to the entrance to the space	Near to the entrance to the space
6	If fuel is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called? Cooling. Starving. Smothering. Suffocating.	Starving.
7	What is the basic principle of fire prevention? Keep all spaces throughout the vessel well ventilated. Inspect the vessel at the end of each watch. Never to smoke in bed. Remove one of the three components of the "fire triangle."	Remove one of the three components of the "fire triangle."
8	What action should be taken immediately after a fire has been extinguished? Hold a de-briefing of the incident with all officers and fire fighters present Establish a continuous watch at the fire area against re-ignition and remove any smouldering material Report the incident to the vessel operator and flag state authorities Write a non-conformance report in compliance with chapter 9 of the International Safety Management Code	Establish a continuous watch at the fire area against re-ignition and remove any smouldering material
9	The ship`s fire fighting installation should provide sufficient power for water jets to reach any part of the vessel normally accessible to the crew. How many jets should it cope with? one two three four	two
10	There are various methods available to extinguish a fire by removing one of the elements of the fire triangle. Removal of potential fuel is called _____ flame inhibition fuel starvation smothering cooling	fuel starvation

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 12

#	Question	Right answers
1	What do we call the temperature at which a material produces enough flammable vapour for it to flash if exposed to an ignition source? The auto-ignition temperature The melting point The flashpoint The ignition temperature	The flashpoint
2	Cargo pump rooms shall be provided with a fixed fire extinguishing system. Which of the following systems is not in accordance with the present SOLAS regulations? High expansion foam extinguishing system. Water spraying extinguishing system. Fixed gas fire extinguishing system. Fixed powder fire extinguishing system.	Fixed powder fire extinguishing system.
3	Why is Halon not used much fire extinguishers on board vessels? It damages electrical equipment. It is harmful to the ozone layer. It is not effective on oil fires. It is too expensive.	It is harmful to the ozone layer.
4	What does this sign mean? Explosive. Radioactive. Dangerous gas. Flammable.	Flammable.
5	What are the criteria that it must be automatic fire detection onboard a ship with heat/ smoke detectors and audio alarm? All ships that are built after 1986 All ships that are built on or after 1986 in accordance with local rule and regulations It is the owners option to have fire detection onboard All ships that is covered by the IMO safety conventions	All ships that is covered by the IMO safety conventions
6	In a mixture of flammable vapour and air, if there is too much vapour and not enough air to support combustion, we say the mixture is _____ saturated. too lean. too rich. over concentrated.	too rich.
7	In the event of fire on board, what do you think is the primary consideration of the master? To liaise with the head office and shore authorities To save the ship To follow instructions as given in the emergency response manual The safety of the crew	The safety of the crew
8	When the BA team has withdrawn from a fire incident, what action should be taken by the team leader? Instruct the BA wearers to change the bottles, then relax until called again if necessary. Check the equipment personally and ensure that it is safe for future use. Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge. Make a note, act as you think best, and keep information to yourself as others, such as the bridge team, must not be overloaded with information.	Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge.
9	Heat will always travel from hotter areas to cooler ones. When welding, for example, the heat is transferred directly through the metal. What is this process is known as? Convection Radiation Conduction Spot	Conduction
10	What manoeuvre should be carry out in the event of a fire onboard? Let the ship follow the wind. Continue on course and speed. Reduce speed and if possible, keep the fire zone to the leeward of the ship. Keep the stem up against the wind.	Reduce speed and if possible, keep the fire zone to the leeward of the ship.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 13

#	Question	Right answers
1	What should first be done before the central gas extinguishing system is used on a fire in the engine room or cargo holds? Stop all fans and engines. Close down boilers. Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated. Close all openings.	Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated.
2	For carbon dioxide fire-fighting systems for machinery spaces the fixed piping system shall be such that: (SOLAS II-2/5.2.4) 100% of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes 100% of the gas can be discharged into the space within three minutes 70% of the gas can be discharged into the space within one minute 85% of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes	85% of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes
3	Most hydrocarbons have vapours which are heavier than air. Which gas commonly found on gas carriers is an exception to this rule? Methane Ethane Butane Propane	Methane
4	Which side of the fire triangle most commonly causes a fire? The introduction of heat. The introduction of fuel. The introduction of oxygen. The introduction of air.	The introduction of heat.
5	What are the main objects a leader of fire fighting must take consideration of? Start the fire pump, inform other ships, call the local fire brigade, arrange transport to shore Rescuing of life, fighting the fire, limitation of the fire and secure the retreat Fighting the fire, communicate with the fire brigade and arrange the lifeboats to evacuate the ship Start the emergency fire pump, fighting the fire, call the local fire brigade, arrange transport to shore	Rescuing of life, fighting the fire, limitation of the fire and secure the retreat
6	How is loss of electric power or other fault conditions of fire-detection and fire-alarm systems to be indicated? (SOLAS II-2/13.1.2) By audible and visual signals at the control panel By check systems on the control panel By semi-automatic test systems at the control panel By fully automatic separate test boards where any faulty condition is initiated by audible and visual signals	By audible and visual signals at the control panel
7	At which time shall required fixed fire-detection and fire-alarm systems with manual operated call points be in operation? (SOLAS II-2/13.1.1) At all times during navigation Always at nighttime At sea and in ports when there are qualified officers on duty Capable of immediate operation at all times	Capable of immediate operation at all times
8	The discharge arrangements for halogenated hydrocarbon total flooding systems shall be so designed that the minimum quantity of medium can be discharged in (based on the discharge of the liquid phase): (SOLAS II-2/5.3.5) 2 minutes or less 20 seconds or less 30 seconds or less 1 minute or less	20 seconds or less
9	If oxygen is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called? Starving. Cooling. Blowing. Smothering.	Smothering.
10	For fire to occur, which of the following sets of elements must be combined? Air, fuel and oxygen. Conduction, convection & radiation. Heat, fuel and oxygen. Air, earth, and water.	Heat, fuel and oxygen.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 14

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the minimum number of "International shore connections" that should be provided on vessels of 500 GRT and above? 2 3 0 - only have to be provided on vessels over 1000 GRT 1	1
2	According to SOLAS - the number and position of hydrants shall be such that _____ at least two jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which, from a single length of hose, may reach any part of the ship. at least one jet of water shall reach any part of the ship that is normally accessible by the crew. at least two jets of water shall reach any part of the ship. at least three jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which from a single length of hose may reach any part of the ship .	at least two jets of water not emanating from the same hydrant, one of which, from a single length of hose, may reach any part of the ship.
3	What is the necessary precautions to prevent sootfire in the exhaust boiler? All the mentioned alternatives. Hose down the smoke side with regular interval. Clean the smoke side with chemicals. Clean smoke side regularly with soot blower equipment.	All the mentioned alternatives.
4	The temperature control system of the crankshaft bearings of the main engine indicates high temperature. What would be the correct action to be taken with regard to opening and checking of the crankcase? Reduce the RPM to a minimum and open the crankcase doors carefully. Stop the engine immediately and keep the luboil pump running for at least 20 minutes before opening the crankcase? Stop the engine and open crankcase down immediately for inspection. Stop the engine immediately, stop the luboil pump, and inspect the crankcase after 5 minutes.	Stop the engine immediately and keep the luboil pump running for at least 20 minutes before opening the crankcase?
5	Approximately, what is the temperature of a cigarette`s burning tip? 500 degrees C. 5,000 degrees C 35 degrees C. 100 degrees C.	500 degrees C.
6	When a fire spreads because of the hot gases rising and heating other fuel sources, the fire has been spread by _____ radiation. expansion. conduction. convection.	convection.
7	To maintain a fire, three conditions need to be met: Oxygen, combustible material and sufficient temperature for combustion. What subject must be removed to extinguish the fire? Oxygen. Combustible material. Either of the mentioned alternatives. Heat, Oxygen and combustible material.	Either of the mentioned alternatives.
8	What is the correct procedure to extinguish a soot fire in the exhaust boiler? Reduce speed, let circulating pump run and use soot blowers. Continue full speed and use soot blowers. Reduce speed and stop circulating pump. Stop the engine and let the fire burn out by itself.	Reduce speed, let circulating pump run and use soot blowers.
9	"A" Class divisions in ships are constructed so that they are capable of preventing the passage of smoke and flame to the end of a standard fire test held for how many minutes? 30 minutes. 45 minutes. 60 minutes 15 minutes	60 minutes
10	A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this fire using water? Water should not be used on any type of oil fire. Water should be applied to the oil in a single jet only. Water should be applied in a jet to the back of the fire. The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion.	The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 15

#	Question	Right answers
1	Why do we have to have an International Shorecoupling onboard? To be able to _____ Connect the firelines ship/shore Connect the cargohoses to shore Connect the bunkerhoses to ship/shore Connect sloplines ship/shore	Connect the firelines ship/shore
2	How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent when dealing with oil fires? By cooling only By smothering only The heat from the fire causes the foam to produce an inert gas which gradually extinguishes the fire. By smothering and also providing some cooling	By smothering and also providing some cooling
3	In case of a fire inside the Acetylene-line in the ac/ox gas welding equipment, what action is deemed necessary? Close Oxygen valve. Close the valves on both the Acetylene and the Oxygen bottles. Close valves on Acetylene bottle(s). Close Acetylene valve in the workshop.	Close the valves on both the Acetylene and the Oxygen bottles.
4	Tank top in engine room has a high quantity of oil residues floating around. When discovered, what action should be taken? Apply foam to the tank top to minimise the risk of fire. Start the fire pump. Open the overboard valve and start the bilge pump. Notify Ch.Eng., find cause of leakage, remedy the leakage and then immediately start cleaning of the tank top.	Notify Ch.Eng., find cause of leakage, remedy the leakage and then immediately start cleaning of the tank top.
5	If you have to carry out hot work close to a smoke detector in the engine room, what precautions should be taken? Notify deck officer in charge that a fire alarm may occur. Disconnect the smoke detector. Notify Master, Deck officer and engineer in charge.The loop for this special sensor to be switched off and take normal precautions for hot work. No special precautions except for having a watch man and a fire extinguisher available.	Notify Master, Deck officer and engineer in charge.The loop for this special sensor to be switched off and take normal precautions for hot work.
6	Where is the International Shorecoupling to be stored? In the engine room In the accommodation Together with the cargohoses Easy accessible by the gangway	Easy accessible by the gangway
7	Welding and use of open flames on board tankers in operation are subject to regulation laid down by the Maritime Directorate ( Ship Control Legislation - SCL). During preparations for welding or hot works, the following item shall always be checked: Time since cleaning was carried out. Inert gas composition. Working performance and capacity of ventilating system. Gas measurings performed in tanks where work is to be carried out.	Gas measurings performed in tanks where work is to be carried out.
8	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? Before welding or hot work is started, all persons taking part in the work shall meet. The safety delegate is responsible for all types of welding and hot work on board the ship. An extract from the log book regarding the decision and the reason for it shall be sent to the Maritime Directorate. If it is decided that work shall be carried out, the decision and the reason for it shall be entered in the ship`s log book.	If it is decided that work shall be carried out, the decision and the reason for it shall be entered in the ship`s log book.
9	"B" Class divisions in ships are constructed so that they are capable of preventing the passage of smoke and flame to the end of a standard fire test held for how many minutes? 30 minutes. 15 minutes 45 minutes. 60 minutes.	30 minutes.
10	What has to be done before the central gas extinguishing system is used on a fire in engine rooms, cargo holds or other confined spaces? Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated All openings to the compartment must be closed Stop all engines Close down boilers	Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 16

#	Question	Right answers
1	What item of fire extinguishing equipment, usually found in the galley, is particularly effective on fires involving hot cooking oil? A bucket of water. A water filled extinguisher. A fire hose. A fire blanket.	A fire blanket.
2	If you discover a fire, what is the most important action to take? Find the seat of the fire Report it by raising the alarm Close doors and windows to remove the air supply Tackle the fire with the nearest fire extinguisher	Report it by raising the alarm
3	What should you do if a pan of fat or cooking oil catches fire in the galley? Pour it down the nearest drain Tip a bucket of water over it Cover it with a fire blanket Spray it with a CO2 extinguisher	Cover it with a fire blanket
4	How do you direct a fire nozzle under full water pressure? Direct the nozzle slightly downwards. Direct the nozzle vertically. Direct the nozzle horizontally. Direct the nozzle slightly upwards.	Direct the nozzle slightly downwards.
5	What would you do if someone`s clothes catch fire? Telephone the bridge. Shout for help while getting the first aid kit. Go and find a fire hose. Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket.	Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket.
6	If heat is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called? Smothering. Starving. Cooling. Wetting.	Cooling.
7	Hydrocarbon gas encountered in oil tankers cannot burn in an atmosphere containing less than approximately what percentage of oxygen (by volume)? 11% 13% 15% 17%	11%
8	Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in case of a fire? Extinguishing attempt is started immediately All possible fire-fighting equipment is brought to the scene All fire-fighting teams are organized as soon as possible Call the Chief Officer	Extinguishing attempt is started immediately
9	What is the best strategy for the master to follow after receiving the initial information of a fire on board? To call an urgent meeting of senior officers to discuss a comprehensive plan of attack Immediate response and rapid attack by the emergency party To put the engineers on stand-by with orders to run the fire pumps, emergency pump, and other vital auxiliary engine room facilities To prepare the ship`s hospital for treatment of casualties	Immediate response and rapid attack by the emergency party
10	What is the maximum allowed suction head for fire pumps? (SOLAS II-2/4.3.3.2.5) 4.5 meters 1.5 metres 3 metres 9 metres	4.5 meters

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 17

#	Question	Right answers
1	What setting are these firefighters use on their nozzle? Stream. Fountain. Spray. Jet.	Spray.
2	In case each hydrant is not fitted with hose and nozzles, what is the requirement? (SOLAS II-2/4.6.1) At each fire station, sufficient number of hoses with nozzles for the hydrants in the area shall be available Hoses with fixed nozzles to be kept ready for use in conspicuous positions near the hydrants Complete interchangeability of hose couplings and nozzles Hoses and nozzles for each hydrant to be available at the fire stations	Complete interchangeability of hose couplings and nozzles
3	Which of these fire extinguishing media is most effective against an open oil fire? Foam. Gas. Water. Powder.	Foam.
4	Which of these portable fire extinguishers are found on the Bridge, in the Radio Room and in the Engine Control Room, because they are extremely effective with fires involving live electrical and electronic equipment? Dry Chemical - Dry Powder. Carbon Dioxide (CO2). Foam. A.F.F.F.	Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
5	If circumstances permit, how should low expansion foam be applied to oil burning in the bulkhead of the engine room? The foam should be aimed at about 45 degrees upwards so that it can drop onto the fire The foam should be aimed at the bulkhead behind the fire and allowed to spread out slowly over the fire. The applicator should be used in a sweeping motion to spread the foam over the surface. The foam should be applied to the centre of the fire.	The foam should be aimed at the bulkhead behind the fire and allowed to spread out slowly over the fire.
6	Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with least side effects in case of a large fire in the engine room? Sprinkler system Powder extinguishing system Central gas extinguishing system and/or waterfog. Central foam extinguishing system	Central gas extinguishing system and/or waterfog.
7	What is the correct location of portable fire fighting equipment during loading/discharging operations? One fire hose and one powder extinguisher forward of the manifold area? On the forecastle and poop deck? Not necessary to locate portable fire fighting equipment near to the manifold? One fire hose forward and aft of the manifold, and portable fire extinguisher near to ships manifold?	One fire hose forward and aft of the manifold, and portable fire extinguisher near to ships manifold?
8	What class of fire involves liquids? Class B fire Class A fire Class C fire Class D fire	Class B fire
9	When a fire breaks out in the accommodation, cargo holds or on deck, who is in charge of the fire fighting operations? The Captain The officer on duty The first person arriving at the scene The Chief Officer	The Chief Officer
10	A class "D" fire involves what type of material? Metals Gases Liquids Wood or other carbonaceous material	Metals

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 18

#	Question	Right answers
1	While the vessel is in a Red Sea port during August loading/discharging a hydrocarbon cargo, should the air suction for the accommodation be: A mixture of both. Closed down all together. Recirk. full open, fresh air intake closed. Placed on full recirculation.	Recirk. full open, fresh air intake closed.
2	What is the minimum number of fireman`s outfits that should be carried on a cargo ship? 4 2 1 3	2
3	What is the minimum number of fireman`s outfits that must be provided on a tanker? 4 2 1 3	4
4	A vessel where the engine personnel are in charge of all technical installations on board are due for a voyage to a cold climate area. Are any special precautions to be implemented with regard to fireline/pumps and use of same? All the mentioned alternatives. Drain all firelines in areas that may be exposed to freezing temperature. Implement special routines for starting fire pumps (e.g. local start/stop operation) to avoid the pumps are started due by a mistake, resulting in filling up the system unnecessarily. Instruct the personnel in routines to prepare the fireline system, e.g. closing all branches and the consequences of not draining the system after use.	All the mentioned alternatives.
5	How many power supply emergency sources are required for fire-detection and fire-alarm systems? (SOLAS II-2/13.1.3) None One Two Three	One
6	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? Before the tank is entered, lifeline, rescue harness and compressed air apparatus shall be ready at the relevant hatch. An officer shall always attend the first entry after tank cleaning and gas freeing. There shall be two stand by watchmen on the watch with walkie-talkie communication. In case of hot work, the work party shall always consist of 3 men.	Before the tank is entered, lifeline, rescue harness and compressed air apparatus shall be ready at the relevant hatch.
7	What is the general requirement for closing mechanisms for in- and outlets of all ventilation systems (ships other than passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers)? (SOLAS II-2/16.9) Automatic closure for each section to be activated by the fire detection and alarm system Only manually closing mechanism allowed Closing must be possible from outside the spaces being ventilated To be remotely controlled from central fire control panel	Closing must be possible from outside the spaces being ventilated
8	What is the requirement for stopping arrangements for power-ventilated accommodation spaces, cargo compartments, machinery spaces, service spaces and control stations (ships other than passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers)? (SOLAS II-2/16.10) Automatic closure controlled by the ship`s fixed fire-detection and alarm system Only manually operated stopping arrangement allowed Must be capable of being stopped from an easily accessible position outside the space being served To be remote by controlled from central fire control panel	Must be capable of being stopped from an easily accessible position outside the space being served
9	How is the activation of any detector or manually operated call point of fixed fire- detection and fire-alarm systems to be indicated? (SOLAS II-2/13.1.4) By sounding the ship`s fire alarm signal in crew accommodation and service spaces By all the indication methods listed By visual and audible signal at the control panel and indicating units By alarm signals at the bridge and engine room control panels	By visual and audible signal at the control panel and indicating units
10	At what time shall automatic sprinkler, fire-detection and alarm systems be capable of immediate operation? (SOLAS II-2/12.1.1) During navigation When there are no competent officers and fire watch on duty At all times Nighttime only	At all times

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 19

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the inherent danger in welding/cutting in piping containing freon? Development of explosive gases? Development of nitrous gases? Depletion of oxygen in the air? Depletion of the ozone layer?	Development of nitrous gases?
2	At what percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is it possible to have a fire? At 21% Above 8% Below 4% At 100%	Above 8%
3	What is the requirements to ventilation ducts of more than 2 metrEs in length (ships other than passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers)? (SOLAS II-2/16.1) They shall be isolated from any combustible material They shall have lining of non-combustible insulating material They must be fabricated of fire-resistant material They must be fabricated of non-combustible material	They must be fabricated of non-combustible material
4	Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher? Yellow Black Light blue Green	Black
5	What is the general requirement for the closing mechanism of ventilators on a ship other than one carrying more than 36 passengers? Only a manual closing mechanism is allowed. Automatic closure of ventilators is required. Closing must be possible from outside the space being ventilated. To be remotely controlled from the central fire control panel.	Closing must be possible from outside the space being ventilated.
6	A particular vessel is equipped with the possibility to insert CO2 in the scavenging air belt in case of uncontrolled fire. What are the action to be taken in case of fire in the scavenging air belt? Reduce the RPM waiting for the fire to burn out, during continuous monitoring of condition. Continue running the engine on regular speed inserting CO2 awaiting the fire to burn out. Reduce the RPM to reduce the scavenge air temperature. When the temperature is reduced and in case the fire is not extinguished by itself, insert carefully CO2. Continue running the engine on regular speed waiting for the fire to burn out, during continuous monitoring of condition.	Reduce the RPM to reduce the scavenge air temperature. When the temperature is reduced and in case the fire is not extinguished by itself, insert carefully CO2.
7	On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped with fire detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the detectors to be observed? Check the detector with heat and/or smoke (in accordance instruction in its instruction book) Check that the actual detector is giving appropriate signals to the central and that all electric connections are in good order. When testing detectors by suitable equipment (smoke and heat) check that the sensors self controlling system, e.g. a flashing control light etc. is functioning. All the mentioned alternatives.	All the mentioned alternatives.
8	The engine room is equipped with regular fire hoses and nozzles. What is important to observe when using water as an extinguisant in the engine room? To reduce the negative effect of water in an engine room, the spraying function to be used.The spray function will also give the personnel operating the fire hose good shelter against heat. All the mentioned alternatives. Water may short circuit electrical installation and may be a threat to the personnel operating the firehose as well as to electrical equipment itself. Water has a clear limitation in fighting an oil fire.	All the mentioned alternatives.
9	What is the main advantage of a Positive Pressure Breathing apparatus? The positive pressure makes it easier to breath when working hard. It ensures a constant supply of air. It is less complicated and cheaper than the demand type BA set. If the face mask has a leak toxic fumes/smoke would still not enter the mask.	If the face mask has a leak toxic fumes/smoke would still not enter the mask.
10	Which of the following actions will most effectively prevent fire in a cabin? Install fire detecting devices. Ensuring that all persons avoid smoking in bed. Request people to refrain from smoking. Removing all ashtrays.	Ensuring that all persons avoid smoking in bed.

Fire Prevention, Fire Fighting. Test 20

#	Question	Right answers
1	Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a dry powder extinguisher? Blue Black Green Yellow	Blue
2	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. During ongoing inspection on work in cargo tanks, the gas concentration shall be checked: Every hour. Every fourth hour. Every second hour. Every 30 minutes.	Every second hour.
3	What class of fire involves gas? Class D fire Class C fire Class A fire Class B fire	Class C fire
4	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? When the tank has been satisfactory cleaned there shall be a 24 hour quarantene. Ventilation to be stopped and gas measuring to be carried out every second hour. Measuring of tank atmosphere shall be performed by one explosimeter. Ventilation from deck may only be carried out with the ship`s inert gas fans. When the tank has been satisfactory cleaned.	When the tank has been satisfactory cleaned there shall be a 24 hour quarantene. Ventilation to be stopped and gas measuring to be carried out every second hour.
5	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? The entering permit shall be signed by the Sen.Off.Deck only. The entering permit shall be based on the check-list for gas freeing and check-list for equipment and preparedness. The entering permit shall be signed by the safety officer only. For a ship at sea, at least 24 hours shall have elapsed from completion of tank cleaning to the tank may be entered.	The entering permit shall be based on the check-list for gas freeing and check-list for equipment and preparedness.
6	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? In ships for which inert gas system is not required, separate cleaning procedures may be used for non-adjacent tanks. Tanks adjacent to the tank where work is to be carried out shall be cleaned and free of gas. The pipe systems shall be cleaned after tanks are cleaned and gas measured. In ships for which inert gas system is not required, all non-adjacent cargo tanks shall be washed with water.	Tanks adjacent to the tank where work is to be carried out shall be cleaned and free of gas.
7	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? Areas difficult to clean shall be covered by fire-resistant material. If the hot work is to be carried out at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottom shall be thoroughly cleaned and all sediments removed. If the place work cannot be satisfactory cleaned by washing, it shall be cleaned chemically. Only spark free tools to be used for cleaning of tank bottoms and for sediments removal.	If the hot work is to be carried out at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottom shall be thoroughly cleaned and all sediments removed.
8	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? If the mechanical ventilation is stopped, the tank shall be left within 5 minutes. If the ventilation has been stopped for more than 30 minutes, new gas measurement shall be carried out before the tank is reentered. The tank shall be mechanically ventilated as long as there is people in it. The tank shall have been mechanically vented for at least two hours before it is entered for inspection or work.	The tank shall be mechanically ventilated as long as there is people in it.
9	What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving carbonaceous materials? Foam extinguisher Water extinguisher CO2 extinguisher Dry powder extinguisher	Water extinguisher
10	Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding or hot work corresponds to these instructions? Check list and certificate to be signed by the chief engineer and a licenced welder. A complete set of check lists and certificates to be issued by the safety officer for each tank. A common certificate for hot and cold work permit shall be used. Before hot work or welding in tanks is started, a complete set of duly signed check lists and certificates shall be provided.	Before hot work or welding in tanks is started, a complete set of duly signed check lists and certificates shall be provided.

Emergency Equipment, Procedures. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	After checked for open airway, given the first two inflations and checked the pulse to make sure that the heart is beating, what is the rate of inflations given until natural breathing is restored ? 10 - 12 times per minute 25 - 27 times per minute Doesn`t matter how many times 12 - 16 times per minute	12 - 16 times per minute
2	From where on board can you find out the different types of protection equipment regarding where placed, how much, how many ans.? In the deck log book The ship Stated in your cabin. In cargo control room.	The ship
3	If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty`s heart stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the rythm when performing M-T-M in combination with ECC with one First Aider only ? 5 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations. 15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations. 10 compressions followed by 3 full ventilations 20 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations	15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations.
4	A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this fire using water? Water should be applied to the oil in a single jet only. Water should be applied in a jet to the back of the fire. The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion. Water should not be used on any type of oil fire.	The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion.
5	You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation situation. What is the rythm of resuscitation with two First Aiders? 10 compressions within every 3 inflations. 7 inflations before every 5 compressions 3 compressions after every 1 inflation 5 compressions after every 1 inflation	5 compressions after every 1 inflation
6	Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a dry powder extinguisher? Green Yellow Blue Black	Blue
7	Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher? Green Yellow Black Light blue	Black
8	What class of fire involves gas? Class B fire Class D fire Class C fire Class A fire	Class C fire
9	What class of fire involves liquids? Class B fire Class A fire Class C fire Class D fire	Class B fire
10	After smoking cigarettes they should be disposed of as follows: Dropped into a waste bin. Disposed of in an ashtray and ensuring that it is extinguished. Dropped over the side only if you are certain they are extinguished. Dropped over the lee side only so that it cannot blow back on on board	Disposed of in an ashtray and ensuring that it is extinguished.

Electronics. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating: Transformer Resistance Temperature sensor Capacitor	Capacitor
2	Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating: Potentiometer, 10 kilo-ohms Variable electrical heater, 10 kilo-watts Auto transformer Variable inductive reactor	Potentiometer, 10 kilo-ohms
3	Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating: Diode Tunnel diode Transistor Silicon controlled rectifier	Transistor
4	Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating: Zener diode Transistor Silicon controlled rectifier Triac	Zener diode
5	Wheatstone resistance bridge is often used for measuring resistances in for instance Pt 100 temperature sensors or strain gauges. This figure is such a bridge. What is the requirement for balance of such a bridge. i.e. the current through the meter i(m) = 0. R1 * R3 = R2 * R4 R1 / R2 = R3 / R4 R1 / R4 = R2 / R3 R1+ R3 = R2+ R4	R1 / R2 = R3 / R4
6	Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating: Resistance, 3300 ohms Electric heater, 3.3 kilowatts Capacitor, 3.3 F Inductive reactor, 3.3 kH	Resistance, 3300 ohms
7	This resistor has the value of 68 k ohm. Which color code will you put on the different color-rings: a. black b. red c. orange a. violet b. green c. yellow a. red b. black c. yellow a. blue b. gray c. orange	a. blue b. gray c. orange
8	What is the resistance value of this resistor: 230 k ohm 2,3 k ohm 68 k ohm 10 k ohm	10 k ohm
9	Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical symbol illustrating: Cathode ray tube Operational amplifier Electronic counter Flip-flop	Operational amplifier
10	A 8-Volt relay is to be used with a 12-Volt power supply. The relay requires a current of 0.1 Amp. What is the series resistance required. 480 ohm 40 ohm 80 ohm 120 ohm	40 ohm

Electronics. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	The typical current gain of a common emitter transistor is 500-5000 1-10 1-1000 10-200	10-200
2	A resistor has three red bands. What is the resistance. 222 ohm 220 ohm 2200 ohm 22 ohm	2200 ohm
3	The physical size of a resistor is an indicator of its Total resistance Resistivity Tolerance Power dissipation capability	Power dissipation capability
4	Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical symbol illustrating: Bandpass filter 3-phase sine-wave generator Transformer with ferromagnetic core Electric heater	Bandpass filter
5	This amplifier circuit is a very common configuration used to amplify the difference in voltage between two input signals; in this case input 1 and 2. What is this amplifier called? Differential amplifier Push-pull amplifier Darlington connection amplifier Common emitter amplifier	Differential amplifier
6	What is a ZENER BARRIER? A zener barrier is a device used for speed regulation on electric motors. A zener barrier is a diode bridge used in rectifiers. A zener barrier is a device that allows the current to pass only one direction. A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsically safety in installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas.	A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsically safety in installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas.
7	These circuits are all active filters. Which of the circuits is a low-pass filter? Figure 4 Figure 2 Figure 1 Figure 3	Figure 2
8	Can a ZENER BARRIER be installed in an hazardous area? Yes, that`s what the zener barrier is made for. Only if properly marked for such installation. Only in equipment operating on very low voltage. No, as only the output from the barrier is intrinsically safe this is not allowed.	No, as only the output from the barrier is intrinsically safe this is not allowed.
9	The inductance which will induce an EMF of 1 Volt in a conductor when the current is changing at a rate of 1 Amp per second, is defined as Henry Microfarad Millihenry Farad	Henry
10	The circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 C(S) = 1,5 C(S) = 2 C(S) = 4 C(S) = 18	C(S) = 18

Electronics. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm , connected in series. Calculate the equivalent resistance R(S) of the two resistances. R(S) = 4 ohm R(S) = 2 ohm R(S) =1,5 ohm R(S) =18 ohm	R(S) =18 ohm
2	This circuit consists of a current source I, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and an inductor L. The voltage/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes through L if the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at time t = 0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which? Figure 2 Figure 1 Figure 4 Figure 3	Figure 3
3	This circuit consists of a voltage source V, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and an inductor L. The voltage/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes in the voltage V(L) in case the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at time t = 0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which? Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4	Figure 1
4	This circuit consists of a current source I, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and a capacitor C. The current/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes in the current I in case the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at time t= 0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which? Figure A Figure B Figure D Figure C	Figure C
5	This circuit consists of a voltage source V, a change-over switch S, a resistor R and a capacitor C. The voltage/time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes in the voltage V(C) in case the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at time t = 0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which? Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4	Figure 1
6	The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12H, connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of the two inductors. L(S) = 0,5 H L(S) = 4 H L(S) = 18 H L(S) = 1,5 H	L(S) = 4 H
7	Which function is this circuit performing? Telemetering Modulating Differentiating Integrating	Differentiating
8	The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12 H, in series. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of the inductors. L(S) = 4 H L(S) = 18 H L(S) = 2 H L(S) = 1,5 H	L(S) = 18 H
9	What is an analogous signal? A stable electric signal. A variable electric signal. A measure for electric current. A measure for voltage.	A variable electric signal.
10	Where in the personal computer is the BIOS system located? On the Video Adapter Card On the keyboard On the hard disk On the motherboard	On the motherboard

Electronics. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	What do you understand with a computer`s POST system? An area of the hard disk that stores the DOS system An old type video adapter A series of tests run by the computer at power on Storage area in memory having a specified storage capacity	A series of tests run by the computer at power on
2	The picture shows a common used 3,5 inches diskette type for storing data. What is the data storing capacity for such diskette? 1.44 MB 760 kB 540 kB 20 MB	1.44 MB
3	The powersupply to the harddisk of a personal computer consists normally of two voltages. Which? 12 V and 48 V 1.5 V and 5 V 5 V and 12 V 12 V and 24 V	5 V and 12 V
4	This circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 C(S) = 2 C(S) =1,5 C(S) =18 C(S) = 4	C(S) = 4
5	This circuit consists of two resistances, R(1)= 12 ohm and R(2) = 6 ohm, connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent value R(S) of the two resistances. R(S) =1,5 ohm R(S)= 4 ohm R(S) =18 ohm R(S) = 2 ohm	R(S)= 4 ohm
6	Which function is this operational amplifier circuit performing? Inverting amplifier Non-inverting amplifier Integrator Differentiator	Inverting amplifier
7	What is the symbol for a THYRISTOR? Figure 4. Figure 2. Figure 1. Figure 3:	Figure 2.
8	Which of the 3 alternatives given is correct for a NOT-gate? Figure 3. None of the figures. Figure 1. Figure 2.	Figure 1.
9	Transmission lines play a central role in radio frequency circuits, where they are used to pipe signals around from one place to another within a circuit, and often to an antenna system. General rules for such transmission line is that they must be "matched". Which of the cables below would you use to obtain a matched transmission between Z1 and Z2? Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 1 Figure 4	Figure 4
10	This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which gate? OR AND NOR NAND	OR

Electronics. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which gate? OR NAND NOR AND	AND
2	This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which gate? NAND OR AND NOR	NAND
3	This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which gate? AND NOR NAND OR	NOR
4	This circuit is a flip-flop. Which type? Bi-stable flip-flop Unstable flip-flop Mono-stable flip-flop Scmitt trigger	Bi-stable flip-flop
5	This is a parallel L-C circuit with curve showing frequency- impedance characteristics. Which of the formulas A to D will you utilize for determining the resonant frequency f? f o = 1 / (2 sqrt (L/C) ) fo = 1 / (sqrt (1 - LC)) fo = 1 / (sqrt (1 - LC)) fo = sqrt (L/C) / C	f o = 1 / (2 sqrt (L/C) )
6	This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output signal Q. Which type of logic function is the gate giving? AND gate NAND gate NOR gate OR gate	OR gate
7	Find the value of the voltage drop from terminal A to terminal B in this circuit: + 24 V - 48 V - 38 V + 19 V	- 38 V
8	Which of the 3 alternatives given is correct for an AND-gate? None of the figures. Figure 3. Figure 2. Figure 1.	Figure 3.
9	Which of the 4 alternatives shows a PNP transistor? Figure 3. Figure 4. Figure 2. Figure 1.	Figure 2.
10	Which of the 4 alternatives shows a NPN transistor? Figure 2. Figure 1. Figure 4. Figure 3.	Figure 3.

Electronics. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	This figure is a transformer, with two windings, N(1) = 2000 and N(2) = 1000 turns, on a common magnetic circuit. Assume that there is no energy loss in the transformer itself. Calculate the current I(2) when the current I(1) = 2 A. I(2) = 8 A I(2) = 4 A I(2) = 1 A I(2) = 2 A	I(2) = 4 A
2	This circuit is a transformer with two windings, N(1) = 2000 and N(2) = 1000 turns, on a common magnetic circuit. Assume that there are no energy losses in the transformer itself. Calculate the output voltage V(2) when the input voltage is V(1) = 100 Volt. V(2) = 400 V V(2) = 50 V V(2) = 200 V V(2) = 10 V	V(2) = 50 V
3	There are many applications in circuit theory where it is important to obtain the maximum possible power that a given source can deliver. This figure consists of a practical voltage source V(g) with internal resistance R(s). A resistance R(L) will maximize the power transmission from the source to R(L)? R(L) = ? R(s) R(L) = R(s) / sqrt (3) R(L) = R(s) R(L) = 2 R(s)	R(L) = R(s)
4	What is digital signal? A signal indicating ampere. Signal indicating voltage. A signal representing 0 = "low" and 1 = "High" A signal indicating Revolution per minute (RPM)	A signal representing 0 = "low" and 1 = "High"
5	This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output signal Q. Which type of logic function is the gate giving? AND gate NOR gate NAND gate OR gate	NOR gate
6	Diodes are widely used in rectification, or the conversion of alternating current to direct current. This circuit symbol is such example. The input voltage V(in) is sine-wave AC. Which of the shown output voltages is correct for this circuit? Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1	Figure 1
7	Choose the resistance R from the list A to D which allows highest possible current without exceeding 5W power consumption. R(S) = 10 ohm R(S) = 30 ohm R(S) = 50 ohm R(S) = 25 ohm	R(S) = 25 ohm
8	Which function is this operational amplifier circuit performing? Inverting amplifier Integrator Differentiator Non-inverting amplifier	Non-inverting amplifier
9	Which function is this operational amplifier circuit performing? Inverting amplifier Non-inverting amplifier Integrator Differentiator	Integrator
10	Which function is this operational amplifier circuit performing? Differentiator Integrator Inverting amplifier Non-inverting amplifier	Differentiator

Electronics. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	This amplifier circuit is a very common configuration used to amplify the difference in voltage between two input signals; in this case input 1 and 2. What is this amplifier called? Push-pull amplifier Darlington connection amplifier Common emitter amplifier Differential amplifier	Differential amplifier
2	The circuit symbol is a full-wave bridge rectifier. Which electronic component will you connect between `a` and `b` in order to obtain reduced ripple voltage to the load RL. Zener diode Resistance Capacitor Inductive reactor	Capacitor
3	These circuits are all active filters. Which of the circuits is a high-pass filter? Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3	Figure 1
4	The circuit symbol is a widely used system for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the diagrams is the correct for the out- put voltage when the input voltage is sine-shaped as shown? Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2	Figure 1
5	These circuits are all active filters. Which of the circuits is a band-pass filter? Figure 2 Figure 1 Figure 4 Figure 3	Figure 3
6	Ordinary thyristors (SCR) must often be protected against reverse overvoltage transients because even over-voltages of extremely short duration can destroy them. These circuits have been given such over-voltage protection, but only one of them is correct. Which? Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2	Figure 1
7	This is a typical emitter follower. What is the main benefit obtained by use of an emitter follower? The input impedance is made much larger than the output impedance The input impedance is made much smaller than the output impedance The collector can be connected to as high voltage as 10 V DC The V out is always equivalent to the V in	The input impedance is made much larger than the output impedance
8	The circuit symbol is a driver for a solenoid (coil) of a solenoid valve S. What is the purpose of the diode IN 4002 connected in parallel to the solenoid S? Open for current flow between the operational amplifier and the transistor 2N5194 Making voltage drop of approximate 0.5V between the operational amplifier and the transistor 2N5194 Blocking inductive kick from the solenoid Blocking for +15V to the emitter of the transistor 2N5194	Blocking inductive kick from the solenoid
9	The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical working characteristic for the same. Which component? Tunnel diode Thyristor Zener diode Transistor	Transistor
10	The figure shows a silicon controlled rectifier with a RC circuit connected in parallel. RC circuit is often used in such connection. For which purpose? Obtain current resonance Measuring the current through the SCR Protect the SCR against damage caused by high voltage spikes Delay the ignition of the SCR	Protect the SCR against damage caused by high voltage spikes

Electronics. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical working characteristic for the same component. Which component? Field effect transistor Triac Zener diode Tunnel diode	Triac
2	The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical working characteristic for the same component. Which component? Zener diode Tunnel diode Field effect transistor Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)	Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)
3	The circuit symbol is a widely used system for converting AC voltage to DC voltage. In this case the input voltage is a sine-wave. Which of the shown diagrams is correct for the output voltage V(out.) Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1	Figure 1
4	Which statement is correct with regards to power supply for equipment supplied through Zener-barriers? The 0-voltage must never be grounded. The +24V must always be grounded. The - 24V must never be grounded. The 0-voltage must always be grounded.	The 0-voltage must always be grounded.
5	What is the meaning of the abbreviation PCB Printed Circuit Board Power Control Bridge Positive Colour Board Positive Current Biased	Printed Circuit Board
6	When data are to be transferred over telephone lines, we often utilize modem at each end. Which of the following adapter cards (parts) will you use for interfacing a modem to a computer? VGA display adapter Enhanced graphic adapter Serial adapter Parallel adapter	Serial adapter
7	Use Kirchoff`s voltage law and Ohm`s law to calculate the voltage V(2) across the resistance R(2). 4,5 V 0,75 V 6 V 2 V	4,5 V
8	How can we check if a lead-acid type battery is fully charged or not? Measure the temperature of the electrolyte Measure the level of the electrolyte Measure the specific gravity of the electrolyte Measure the voltage	Measure the specific gravity of the electrolyte
9	Use Kirchoff`s current law and Ohm`s law to calculate the value of the current I for this circuit. 2 A 72 A 48 A 22 A	22 A
10	Which function is this operational amplifier circuit performing? Non-inverting amplifier Differentiator Integrator Inverting amplifier	Differentiator

Electronics. Test 9

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is this? A measuring bridge A rectifier An amplifier A zener barrier. (Positive)	A zener barrier. (Positive)
2	Which method is best for determining earth failure on a 24 VDC power supply? A lamp, (0-50 mA) and a mA-meter in series. An mA-meter A digital V-meter. A megger-tester	A lamp, (0-50 mA) and a mA-meter in series.
3	Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical symbol illustrating ? Low pass filter Auto transformer Inverter Battery charger	Inverter
4	What kind of electrolyte is used for Nickel-iron batteries? Solution of zinc-carbon and water Solution of sodium and water Solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH) and water Solution of sulfuric acid and water	Solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH) and water
5	The maximum current that a 15 Volt, 3 Watt Zenerdiode can handle without damage is 0.45 A 0.5 A 0.2 A 20 A	0.2 A
6	the instrument most widely used for testing of semiconductor diodes is Oscilloscope Ohmmeter Voltmeter Ammeter	Ohmmeter
7	Which cell voltage will you supply for trickle charging of a lead acid battery? 2.15 V 2.0 V 2.5 V 1.2 V	2.15 V
8	Radio frequency signals can carry information from one place to another if it is modulated. There are several ways to modulate a carrier. Which modulating method is illustrated here? Pulse-code modulation (PCM) Amplitude modulation (AM) Frequency modulation (FM) Pulse-width modulation (PWM)	Amplitude modulation (AM)
9	An important quantity which is useful in circuit analysis is known as conductance G (Siemens). Which of the formulas A to D expresses the conductance for this circuit? G = I / R G = 2 R G = 1 / R G = R * I	G = I / R
10	When we are using a diode to convert AC to DC, it is usually referred to as a Regulator Rectifier Controller Alternator	Rectifier

Automation, Control Equipment. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	For which of the following systems would you install a PID-controller Pressure-control Flow-control Gas measurement Temperature-control	Temperature-control
2	Which of the 3 alternatives below is giving an OR-function? Figure 3. None of the figures. Figure 2. Figure 1.	Figure 2.
3	What will be the probably outcome if the amplification is set to high on the controller The process response will be very slow The set-point will change The process will oscillate and get out of control Nothing	The process will oscillate and get out of control
4	PT-100 sensors are some times used with 3 or even 4 wires. What is the reason for this? Higher measuring accuracy. Higher mechanically strength of the cable. Because of power-consumption. For fault indication.	Higher measuring accuracy.
5	What is static amplifying Corresponding change in signals Change in output signal divided by change in input signal Change in input signal divided by change in output signal Change in input signal times change in output signal	Change in output signal divided by change in input signal
6	What precaution is to be taken when the Engineer on Duty is entering an UMS-mode operated engine room due to an alarm or due to a scheduled routine check? Leave the UMS selector switch in UMS-mode Any of the mentioned alternatives will meet the requirements. Switch the UMS selector switch to manual mode and engage the "dead man alarm" Switch the UMS selector switch to manual mode only	Switch the UMS selector switch to manual mode and engage the "dead man alarm"
7	What principle of measurement is the viscosity controller based on? measurement of flow measurement of two different temperatures Measurement of differential pressure measurement of temperature	Measurement of differential pressure
8	Prior to the lunch break, the Engineer on Duty observes that the operating generator set has an output of 90%. With regard to operation of the generator, what is the - most important - assumption(s) for him to check before switching to UMS-mode? That all operating parameters of the generator set in operation are normal (e.g. exhaust temperatures, lubeoil pressure, cooling water temperature etc.) Visually checking the auxiliary engine that there are no leaks or other obvious operating failures All parameters as listed under the other alternatives. That a secondary auxiliary set is switched to automatic standby mode	That a secondary auxiliary set is switched to automatic standby mode
9	The thermal expansion valve responds to the Amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the coil Amount of superheat in the vapor in the liquid Temperature in the evaporator coil Pressure in the evaporator coil	Amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the coil
10	During routine checking of alarm functions of main and auxiliary equipment, some setpoints are canceled due to a mistake. What will be the appropriate routine to ensure correct setpoints are set? Select a setpoint based on present condition allowing for a reasonable safety margin. Consult with the instruction manual for the equipment in question for correct values. Ask your colleague if he remembers the correct setpoint Check from previous records for correct values	Consult with the instruction manual for the equipment in question for correct values.

Automation, Control Equipment. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	Please indicate the correct sequence of action to take place in an alarm/monitoring and safety system. Alarm, slowdown, st.by start, shutdown. St.by start, alarm, slowdown, shutdown. Alarm, slow down, st.by start, shutdown Alarm, st.by start, slowdown. shutdown	Alarm, st.by start, slowdown. shutdown
2	For any engine room operated in UMS-mode, defined checks are to be carried out prior to switching to UMS-mode. Is it the Engineer on Duty`s responsibility to have the full control of condition of any check items prior to switching to UMS-mode and leaving the engine room, or may he leave the engine room for a short period trusting the alarms and automatic functions are sufficient for safe operation? Ok for a short period as long as one rating is left "on watch" A described UMS-mode check shall always be carried out prior to leaving the engine room, irrespective of the time he will be absent. Ok for 15-20 minutes without a proper check Ok for one hour without a proper check	A described UMS-mode check shall always be carried out prior to leaving the engine room, irrespective of the time he will be absent.
3	In some cases we can see that a resistor is connected over an alarm contact (see diagram). Why is this connection used? To stabilise power consumption. Enable measuring the total resistance of the circuit. To monitor the cable/wires for break. To avoid sparks on the contacts when opening and closing.	To monitor the cable/wires for break.
4	During synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly "fast" compared to the busbar frequency.This is to ensure that the: Incomer picks up as a motor Incomer picks up as a generator Most rapid synchronising action is achieved Incomers reverse power trip is tested	Incomer picks up as a generator
5	During a routine seapassage the cooling water high temperature alarm system for one of the auxiliary engines is out of function and blocked. What will be the appropriate immediate action? All the actions listed in the other alternatives Have the failure immediately repaired Switch to another generator set (that is available) If the failure is in conflict with pre-requisitional electric power supply, ensure manual operation mode until the failure is corrected	All the actions listed in the other alternatives
6	What is the meaning of the expression dead-band The controller will not react on a process change in a specific range It will take some time before the controller is reacting on a change It will only react in a limited time It will is not responding to adjustment of set-point	The controller will not react on a process change in a specific range
7	In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic circuit, what does the following symbol indicate? Double check valve. Throttle valve. Pressure relief valve. Directional control valve.	Double check valve.
8	Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an emergency generator? Steering gear and alarm system Engine room lighting and bow thruster Galley and air conditioning Sound powered telephone system	Steering gear and alarm system
9	Which of the logic statements is correct for this pneumatic system? S = A and B and C S = A or (B and C) S = A or B or C S = (A or B) and C	S = (A or B) and C
10	Which push-button valve A, B or C must be pushed (operated) in order to obtain movement of the pneumatic cylinder S? B A C None	B

Automation, Control Equipment. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the meaning of The slave controller receives the set-point from the output signal of the master controller The slave controller can be tuned from the engine control room The slave controller can be tuned by a hand carried remote controller The slave controller can be in any mode of operation	The slave controller receives the set-point from the output signal of the master controller
2	In a cascade control system, what is the correct mode of the slave controller during normal operation The slave controller shall be in manual mode The slave controller can be in any mode The slave controller shall be in remote mode The slave controller shall be in auto mode	The slave controller shall be in remote mode
3	What is dynamic amplifying Variable amplifying Corresponding change in signals Amplitude of output signal divided by amplitude of input signal Amplitude of input signal divided by amplitude of output signal	Amplitude of output signal divided by amplitude of input signal
4	Which controller must be tuned first in a cascade control system Both at the same time Any one of them The secondary controller The primary controller	The secondary controller
5	What do you understand by the expression Master Controller State of the art controller The primary controller in a cascade control system The best possible control system The Captain	The primary controller in a cascade control system
6	What is this kind of controller normally called? A cascade controller. A double acting controller. A two point controller. A two way controller.	A cascade controller.
7	Which of the following parameters will not result in oscillation Too long I-time Too long D-time Too high amplification Temperature change	Too long I-time
8	In a PID controller we have possibility to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (1) and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to a change in input, if the setting of the proportional band is too wide. Figure 3. Figure 4. Figure 1. Figure 2.	Figure 1.
9	In a PID controller we have possibility to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I) and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to change in input, if the setting of the reset time is too fast. Figure 2. Figure 1. Figure 4. Figure 3.	Figure 3.
10	What is the most common type of controller P-controller PD-controller PID-controller PI-controller	PI-controller

Automation, Control Equipment. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	In which of the following processes will the time constant be of minor importance Level control Temperature control Pressure control Flow control	Level control
2	What is typical for a continuous control system The control valve will always be changing positionv It is not possible to have a stable process It is possible to predict the control mathematicallyIt is possible to predict the control mathematically The output signal is equal to the input signal	It is possible to predict the control mathematicallyIt is possible to predict the control mathematically
3	What is typical for a feed-forward control system The process is always oscillating We are controlling the process inlet side We can calculate the system response mathematically It is easy to obtain a perfect control	We are controlling the process inlet side
4	When tuning a cascade control system, where do you start The master controller Both at the same time The slave controller with the master controller in manual mode The slave controller with the master controller in auto mode	The slave controller with the master controller in manual mode
5	What is typical for a P(proportional)-controller It will always be a deviation between the set-point and the process value Very stable control Very reliable control and easy installation Simple maintenance	It will always be a deviation between the set-point and the process value
6	What is a proportional band Any part of the total amplification 100/amplification Amplification/100 Amplification/10	100/amplification
7	What is the ideal relation between two following amplitudes on the response curve 1:2 1:8 1:16 1:4	1:4
8	Earthing of signal cables. Which of the 4 alternatives is correct for a cable for analogue signals? Figure 2. Figure 3. Figure 4. Figure 1.	Figure 1.
9	In a PID controller we have possibility to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I) and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to change in input, if the setting of the rate time is too short. Figure 1. Figure 3. Figure 4. Figure 2.	Figure 2.
10	What is the meaning of split-range Several control-valves are connected to the same controller Several controllers are connected to the same control-valve Several control-loops for the same range On-Off control	Several control-valves are connected to the same controller

Electrical Installations, Dangers. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	What are the prime movers that can be used to drive medium to large size industrial alternators? Gas or hydraulic turbines. Any of the other options. Internal combustion engines. Steam turbines.	Gas or hydraulic turbines. Internal combustion engines. Steam turbines.
2	Which of the following statements about shaft alternators is true ? Shaft alternators produce the electrical power on steamships. Shaft alternators produce direct current. They are only found on ships powered by slow speed diesel engines. They produce the electrical power when a ship powered by medium speed diesels is at sea.	They produce the electrical power when a ship powered by medium speed diesels is at sea.
3	When wiring a modern 13 amp square pin electric plug which colour wire is attached to earth ? Blue Brown Yellow and green Black	Yellow and green
4	Ohms are a measure of which of the following ? A conductor`s resistance to electricity flowing along it. Electrical power in a generator circuit. The pressure required to drive the electricity through a conductor. The quantity of electricity flowing along a conductor.	A conductor`s resistance to electricity flowing along it.
5	If excessive current flows in a circuit which of the following automatically isolates the circuit ? The isolating switch. The rectifier. The ammeter. The fuse.	The fuse.
6	220 volts would supply which of the following on a modern ship ? Purifiers. Large main pumps. Main air compressors. Engine room lighting.	Engine room lighting.
7	A small electrical circuit can be used to switch on a larger circuit with which of the following ? A transformer. A breaker. A relay. A busbar.	A relay.
8	Which of the following statements about electrical fuses is true ? Fuses protect circuits and people from excess current automatically. When a fuse fails it is necessary to replace it immediately. A regularly failing fuse should be replaced with one of a high rating. After a fuse has failed it restores the current automatically once the fault has been found.	Fuses protect circuits and people from excess current automatically.
9	On board modern ships the majority of the lights are powered by _____ 220 volts. 110 volts. 440 volts. 50 volts.	220 volts.
10	On board ship an electrical transformer is used to _____ produce D.C. from A.C. change D.C. voltage from one value to another. change A.C. voltage from one value to another. isolate a circuit automatically.	change A.C. voltage from one value to another.

Electrical Installations, Dangers. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	The main switchboard on a ship is usually situated in which of the following places ? The alternator flat. The Machinery Control Room. The Bridge. The accommodation.	The Machinery Control Room.
2	The charge in a lead acid battery can be measured with which of the following ? A hydrometer. A thermometer. A wattmeter. An ammeter.	A hydrometer.
3	The electrolyte in a charged lead acid battery consists of water and _____ potassium hydroxide. hydrochloric acid. muriatic acid. dilute sulphuric acid.	dilute sulphuric acid.
4	Which of the following duties would NOT be served by primary batteries ? The powering of hand torches. Emergency lighting. Low voltage systems such as telephones. Emergency generator starting.	The powering of hand torches.
5	The name given to the force that drives electrical current is which of the following ? Ohms. Watts. Voltage. Amperes.	Voltage.
6	When wiring a modern 13 amp square pin electric plug which colour wire is attached to neutral ? Brown Yellow and green Black Blue	Blue
7	When changing a fuse care must be taken _____ to leave the electrical tool connected. not to change it with an electrical screwdriver. not to replace it with one of a higher rating. to leave the supply on.	not to replace it with one of a higher rating.
8	Behind the main switchboard are copper bars carrying electrical current. These are called _____ transformers. breakers. batteries. busbars.	busbars.
9	Onboard modern ships the main electrical power circuits are served by _____ 220 volts. 220 volts. 440 volts. 110 volts.	440 volts.
10	The piece of electrical equipment used for changing a voltage, up or down, is called _____ a switch. a fuse. a circuit breaker. a transformer.	a transformer.

Electrical Installations, Dangers. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	Concerning modern 13 amp square pin electric plugs which of the following statements is true ? The live wire is coloured blue. The neutral wire is coloured brown. The earth wire goes to the centre top connection. The fuse is at the neutral connection.	The earth wire goes to the centre top connection.
2	A conductor`s electrical current is measured in _____ Watts. Volts. Amperes. Ohms.	Amperes.
3	When wiring a modern 13 amp square pin electric plug which colour wire is attached to live ? Yellow and green Black Blue Brown	Brown
4	A valve which is operated by an electric circuit is called a _____ motorized valve. solenoid valve. breaker. thermostatic valve.	solenoid valve.
5	What is the proper name of the lamp shown here item No. 12 ? A TL fluorescent lamp. A FX neon lamp. A GE ballast lamp. A SL daylight saver lamp.	A TL fluorescent lamp.
6	What is item No. 14 as shown here in this fluorescent lamp assembly ? The reset button. The light switch. The starter. The automatic fuse.	The starter.
7	The instrument used to measure electrical insulation is called _____ a megger. a motormeter. a voltmeter. an ammeter.	a megger.
8	An electrical breaker is defined as which of the following ? A circuit for producing D.C. from A.C. A device that acts as a fuse as well as a switch. An isolating switch. A device for changing voltage.	A device that acts as a fuse as well as a switch.
9	Watts are a measurement of _____ electricity flow. electrical power. resistance. electrical pressure.	electrical power.
10	Which of the following would be powered by 440 volts A.C. on a modern ship ? Alarm panels. Electric motors running pumps. Emergency generator starter motors. Accommodation lighting.	Electric motors running pumps.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	In a `shunt` DC motor how are the pole windings connected? In series with the armature. In parallel with the armature. Both parallel and in series. Separately from the armature output.	In parallel with the armature.
2	Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do? Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started. All of these.	Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.
3	What determines the power factor of an alternator when it is connected singularly to the switchboard? Number of pairs of pole coils in the excitation winding The load connected to the switchboard The generated voltage The excitation voltage	The load connected to the switchboard
4	With two alternators running in parallel, you wish to stop one. The first step is to: Make sure the load is evenly shared Trip the main circuit breaker Increase the frequency on the switchboard Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped	Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
5	With no.1 and no.2 alternators running in parallel and the kW loads equally shared, one alternator is drawing much higher current than the other. What does this indicate? Alternator frequencies are different and should be adjusted on the governor speed controllers Alternators are out of phase and should be tripped and paralleled again One alternator has lost one of its phases The alternators are not generating the same voltages and should be adjusted on automatic voltage regulator rheostats	The alternators are not generating the same voltages and should be adjusted on automatic voltage regulator rheostats
6	At which point do you engage the main circuit breaker of the incoming alternator when paralleling two alternators? With the pointer of the synchronoscope at 0 With the pointer of the synchronizer stopped at any position and both synchronizing lamps bright (on) With the pointer of the synchronoscope rotating fast and both synchronizing lamps flashing on and off In none of the mentioned alternatives	With the pointer of the synchronoscope at 0
7	With two alternators operating in parallel at 75% load capacity, one trips without any warning. What is the first action that should be taken? Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to the switchboard Check the circuit breaker of the tripped alternator Restart the tripped alternator immediately Start and connect the emergency alternator	Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to the switchboard
8	You have just synchronized a second alternator onto the main switchboard, and want to equally share the load between the "on" and incoming alternators. What would you do first? Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and reduce the governor speed controller of the alternator already on the switchboard Adjust voltage rheostat for the incoming alternator on the front of the switchboard Lower the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and increase the governor speed controller of the alternator already on the switchboard Trip the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator and check the voltage and speed adjustments before trying again	Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and reduce the governor speed controller of the alternator already on the switchboard
9	When paralleling two alternators they must have: All of the mentioned alternatives. Same number of phases Same phase rotation Same frequency	Same number of phases Same phase rotation Same frequency
10	You are paralleling two alternators and the pointer of the synchronoscope slowly stops rotating and remains stopped in one position before the circuit breaker is closed. This would indicate: The voltage of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the main switchboard The incoming alternator is in phase with the switchboard, but the frequency is not the same The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the main switchboard The synchronoscope is not functioning properly and should be checked	The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the main switchboard

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars ? Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage. Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate. Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor. Because the bus bars will be short circuited.	Because the bus bars will be short circuited.
2	How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working ? By raising the alternator voltage. By lowering the alternator voltage. By lowering the generator frequency. By raising the generator frequency.	By lowering the generator frequency.
3	What happens to the terminal voltage of a generator when it supplies a leading power factor load ? It fluctuates. It remains steady. It rises. It falls.	It rises.
4	How many sliprings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately excited three-phase alternator ? Four. Three. Six. Two.	Two.
5	At what percentage of the motor name plate rating can a thermal overload relay be safely set for continuously rated motors with service factor 1.15 ? 165 %. 180 %. 115 %. 140 %.	115 %.
6	Which are the two requirements to make electricity generation possible ? Current to induce flux, conductor motion cutting flux. Presence of magnetic flux, relative motion between conductor and flux. Current to induce flux, rotary movement. Power to induce magnetic flux, power to rotate.	Presence of magnetic flux, relative motion between conductor and flux.
7	What is the advantage of a fuse over a circuit breaker with regard to short circuit protection ? It cannot get stuck, no mechanical parts. The broken fuse is easier to locate. Its very high speed breaking operation. It is less dangerous since there are no arcs.	Its very high speed breaking operation.
8	What happens to the characteristics of a 3 phase inductor motor if the applied voltage is slightly reduced ? Speed decreases, current and torque remain constant. Current and speed decrease, torque remains constant. Current and torque decrease , speed remains constant. Speed and torque decrease, current remains constant.	Current and torque decrease , speed remains constant.
9	For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is the device usually set ? 115 % 110 % 125 % 120 %	110 %
10	If open circuit and interruption of current continuity occur in the windings of an electric motor it is called _____ an earth fault. a winding break. an insulation breakdown. a short circuit.	a winding break.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit on the generator circuit breaker? It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage. All of these. It trips the alternator by under voltage. It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage.	All of these.
2	If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails to operate, what back-up safety device will activate ? The overspeed trip. The under voltage trip. The preferential trip. The low frequency trip.	The under voltage trip.
3	A generator`s Reverse Power protection relay is fitted between _____ the breaker connecting bars. the breaker and the consumers. the generator and the consumers. the generator and the bus bars.	the generator and the bus bars.
4	How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator`s Reverse Trip Relay operates ? 3 - 5 seconds. 5 - 7 seconds. 7 - 8 seconds. 1 - 2 seconds.	3 - 5 seconds.
5	The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254.34 Volt. What is the equivalent line to line voltage ? 230 Volt. 147 Volt. 440 Volt. 254.34 Volt.	440 Volt.
6	If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main breaker? The reverse current trip. The under voltage trip. The high/low frequency trip. The overload trip.	The high/low frequency trip.
7	For an overload of 25 % of the full rated current how long compared to tripping a circuit breaker would a fuse take to blow ? No difference. Very much longer. Longer. Lesser.	Longer.
8	When parallel running alternators, what effects the reactive power of each alternator (kVAR) ? The temperature of the windings due to load distribution. The power throttle of the driving units. The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator. The excitation current.	The excitation current.
9	The ship`s insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the most likely cause. A connection box has been filled with salt water. The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water. The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited. The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.	A connection box has been filled with salt water.
10	The Main as well as the Emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is _____ fed into and distributed to the motors via starting boxes. monitored and supplied via distributors. fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers. generated as distributed.	fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ? In the rotor. In the stator. In the excitator. In the sliprings.	In the stator.
2	How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ? By the excitation current in the rotor. By the excitation current in the stator. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard. By the alternator speed.	By the excitation current in the rotor.
3	Typically, how many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting current ? 5 - 7 times. 3 - 5 times. 7 - 9 times. 2 - 3 times.	2 - 3 times.
4	What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it supplies a lagging power factor load, example induction motors ? The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt. The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt. The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt. The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt.	The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt.
5	What is the meaning of item `CP` in this ship`s electric plant diagram ? Control room. Control panel. Switch panel. Main switchboard.	Main switchboard.
6	The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to what? The speed of the alternator. The output current of the alternator. The output voltage of the alternator. The output voltage and the output current of the alternator.	The output voltage and the output current of the alternator.
7	How can the direction of a three phase induction motor can be reversed ? Change the capacitor connection to another line. Reverse the polarity of the armature. Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST. Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals.	Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals.
8	Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main breaker will trip the alternator if a major cabled line to the distributors should fail and the insulation break through ? The short circuit protection. The reverse current trip. The high/low frequency trip. The undervoltage relay.	The short circuit protection.
9	If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main switch breaker ? The overload trip. The reverse current trip. The undervoltage/overvoltage trip. The high/low frequency trip.	The high/low frequency trip.
10	A breakdown in insulation between a motor winding and the motor frame is called _____ an insulation breakdown. an earth. a winding breakdown. a short circuit.	an earth.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	How is the excitation current transmitted to the rotor? Generated from within the rotor. Via a commutator and brushes. Via slip rings and brushes. Via the tacho generator.	Via slip rings and brushes.
2	The breakdown in insulation between one or more windings or one or more coils inside an electric motor is called _____ a winding break. a short circuit. an insulation breakdown. an earth.	an insulation breakdown.
3	When a DC generator is short circuited, how is the output voltage affected? Drops slightly. Increases to max. Falls to zero. Remains constant.	Falls to zero.
4	When two generators are being manually synchronized, when should the circuit breaker be closed ? When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11 o`clock position. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o`clock position. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly anti-clockwise and at 11 o`clock position. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o`clock position.	When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11 o`clock position.
5	In a Star-connected 3-phase motor _____ the line current is equal to the Phase current. the phase voltage is higher than the line voltage. the phase current higher than the line current. the line voltage equal to the phase voltage.	the line current is equal to the Phase current.
6	What will be the most likely equipment to be disconnected by the preferential trip? Seawater circulating pumps. Galley. General Service pump. Steering pumps.	Galley.
7	The kWatt indicator indicates 300 kWatt and the kVAR indicator shows 200 kVAR. What is the Power Factor? 0.766 0.799 0.832 0.864	0.832
8	In an alternator what effect does increasing the excitation have? Increases the cycles/second of the current. Increases the amperage produced. Decreases the voltage produced. Increases the voltage produced in the conductor.	Increases the voltage produced in the conductor.
9	The torque developed by a three phase induction motor is dependent on which of the following? Its voltage, current and impedance. Its synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency. Its rotor emf, current and power factor. Its speed, frequency and number of poles.	Its voltage, current and impedance.
10	When two diesel generator sets are running in parallel during your engine room watch, what should you periodically check ? That both diesels have the same voltage and the same frequency. That both diesels have the same load in kWatt, same reactive load in kVAR, same amperage. That both diesels have exactly a 50 % share of the active load in kWatt. That both diesels are running at the same speed.	That both diesels have the same load in kWatt, same reactive load in kVAR, same amperage.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the result if a motor runs at a frequency higher than its designed operating frequency? It will run faster and overspeed. It will run slower with too high a current. It will run faster and be overloaded. It will run slower and at too high a voltage.	It will run faster and be overloaded.
2	What will happen when push-button 2 is pressed? The relay coil A will activate as long at the button is pressed. The switch T will cause the coil to de-activate. The bulb L will give a pulsating light. The relay coil A will activate and remain activated even after the button 2 has been released.	The relay coil A will activate and remain activated even after the button 2 has been released.
3	If the insulation fails on a major distribution cable, which alternator breaker trip will operate? The reverse current trip. The high/low frequency trip. The overload trip. The short circuit protection.	The short circuit protection.
4	Why are interpoles fitted to DC generators? To prevent burning of the brushes. To enable the same size generator to carry more load. To prevent shaft magnetism. To counter field distortion.	To counter field distortion.
5	Complete the sentence. A series-wound generator has the field windings in series with its _____ commutator. field poles. armature. brushes.	armature.
6	What can cause etched or burned bands on the contact faces of brushes in a DC motor? Brushes improperly positioned. Copper embedded in the brushes. Copper drag on the commutator. High mica segments.	Brushes improperly positioned.
7	An unidentified feeder supplies three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder in "AMPACITY "? 235 Amps. 350 Amps. 120 Amps. 175 Amps.	120 Amps.
8	The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the line current? 127 Amps. 153.52 Amps. 219.97 Amps. 73.32 Amps.	219.97 Amps.
9	In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water what corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again? Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80 Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.	Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80
10	What are the items `PP` indicated in this electric starting diagram ? Start relays. Stop relays. Start push buttons. Stop push buttons.	Stop push buttons.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	What should be the minimum current carrying capacity of branch circuit conductors supplying a single motor ? 200 % of the full motor name plate rating. 110 % of the full motor name plate rating. 125 % of the full laoad current name plate rating. 140 % of the full motor name plate rating.	125 % of the full laoad current name plate rating.
2	What does item `CE` stands for in this ship`s electric plant drawing ? Common energy lighting distributor. Emergency Switchboard. Control equipment power. Central emergency station.	Emergency Switchboard.
3	How many watts are there in one horsepower ? 746 Watts. 760 Watts. 860 Watts. 720 Watts.	746 Watts.
4	A split-phase motor is an induction motor where the magnetic fields are produced by _____ that causes the motor to rotate. two permanent magnets the shunt and the series windings the main and the auxiliary windings the three stator windings	the main and the auxiliary windings
5	Three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each are fed by an unidentified feeder. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder current carrying capacity ? Approx 134 Amps. Approx 175 Amps. Approx 235 Amps. Approx 350 Amps.	Approx 134 Amps.
6	A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault? 2400 Amps. 240 Amps. 20 Amps. 0 Amps.	20 Amps.
7	How is the direction of rotation changed in an asynchronous motor? By reversing the frequency. By switching all three connections on the motor terminal. By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal. The direction of rotation cannot be changed.	By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal.
8	What possibilities exist to supply power via direct connection to the Emergency Switchboard. 1) Supply by main diesel engines. 2) Supply by emergency diesel. 1) Supply by main switchboard. 2) Supply by emergency diesel. 1) Supply by shore power. 2) Supply by main switchboard. 1) Supply by shore power. 2) Supply by main switchboard.	1) Supply by main switchboard. 2) Supply by emergency diesel.
9	How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective ? By fitting lamps crossed over two phases. By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases. By fitting a voltmeter over one phase. By fitting lamps over the three phases.	By fitting a voltmeter over one phase.
10	A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced three phase motor working at full load. The motor is rated to consume 100 A. What will the meter show ? 110 Amps. 100 Amps. 33.3 Amps. 0 Amps.	0 Amps.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	What does item `C` indicate in this electrical starting circuit ? The overload. The main contactor. The auxiliary contactor. A thermal relay.	The main contactor.
2	What does item `RT` represent in this schematic electrical starting diagram ? The overload relay. The measuring relay. The signalling relay. The time relay.	The overload relay.
3	What are the electric power suppliers on board this ship ? 4 x alternators, 2 x transformers. 440 Volt and 220 Volt. Electric motors and lighting circuits. 2 Main Diesels, 1 Emergency Diesel, 1 Turboalternator.	2 Main Diesels, 1 Emergency Diesel, 1 Turboalternator.
4	If a fault has occurred (shorted, earthed) in an electric motor, you should _____ replace all three fuses, blown or not. not replace the fuses if they are not blown. replace one fuse if only one is found blown. replace two fuses if only two are found blown.	replace all three fuses, blown or not.
5	What information would you find on the name plate of any industrial transformer. Polarity marking, kVA, impedance, voltages, maker. kVAR rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity. Power, current, horsepower, ampereage. Power, voltage, transformation rate, impedance.	kVAR rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity.
6	When will the left hand lamp `L` illuminate ? (Assume there is no defect in the installation) When an overload/trip occurs. When the engine is stopped. When the engine is running. When the main breaker is switched on.	When the main breaker is switched on.
7	Arc chutes in circuit breakers are efficient devices for quenching arcs in air because they _____ confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling. extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation. isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over. control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc.	confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling.
8	DC generators are rated in _____ HP. KVA. KW. KwA.	KW.
9	The voltage in a 60Hz AC generator is adjusted by _____ the number of poles. the speed of the engine of the generator. the magnetic field strength. the number of series conductors.	the magnetic field strength.
10	In DC generators what effect can be caused by `armature reaction`? Breakdown of the mica insulation. Voltage variation. Inability of the generator to carry full load. Arcing at the brushes.	Arcing at the brushes.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 9

#	Question	Right answers
1	What are items F indicating in this starting box drawing ? The front connectors. The phase terminals. The fuses. The front switch.	The fuses.
2	What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in parallel ? To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load. To divide the reactive current equally between the generators. To cut in generators automatically as they are needed. To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators.	To divide the reactive current equally between the generators.
3	What could item D represent in this electric starting diagram ? A thermostat. A level switch. Any of the these. A pressostat.	Any of the these.
4	The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by: A tripped bus circuit breaker. Excessive prime mover speed. Failure of the exciter. The generator`s rotating speed is 10% below rated.	Failure of the exciter.
5	When an electric motor is operated at a higher frequency, it will run _____ and it may be operating _____ faster _____ in overload. slower _____ at too high a voltage. faster _____ at overspeed. slower _____ with too high a current _____	faster _____ in overload.
6	What are items `E` in this starting circuit diagram ? A low voltage relay. A short-circuit trip. An overload relay / stop button. A reverse current trip.	An overload relay / stop button.
7	What is the purpose of the preference load tripping system? To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload. To trip the generator before the overload damages the engine. Disconnect essential equipment before a short circuit can cause damage. Re-connect essential equipment after a blackout.	To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload.
8	How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault? By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test). By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter). By carrying out a Phase balance test. By carrying out a Megger test.	By carrying out a Megger test.
9	How is the power output of an alternator controlled? By the alternator speed. By the excitation current in the rotor. By the excitation current in the stator. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard.	By the excitation current in the rotor.
10	With large load change what maintains steady voltage? Automatic voltage regulator & flywheel. Flywheel & governor. Governor & automatic voltage regulator. Automatic voltage regulator.	Flywheel & governor.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 10

#	Question	Right answers
1	What do items C represent in this starter diagram ? Overloads. Transformers. Contacts. Relays.	Relays.
2	How is the direction of a three-phase induction motor reversed? Reverse the polarity of the armature. Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST. Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals. Change the capacitor connection to another line.	Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals.
3	What is required to generate 50Hertz using a slow speed prime mover? Reduced number of poles. Increased number of poles. Gearbox to increase the generator speed. Greater excitation current.	Increased number of poles.
4	An earth fault on an electrical motor can be defined as an electrical connection between its wiring and its _____ circuit breaker. shunt field. metal frame work. fuse.	metal frame work.
5	What units are used to measure back E.M.F.? Farads. Volts. Ohms. Ampere.	Volts.
6	What is the first step when removing a generator from parallel operation with other generators? Remove the load from the generator to be stopped. Switch off all connected loads. Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line. Trip off the generator from the switchboard.	Remove the load from the generator to be stopped.
7	Which is true in a Star-connected 3-phase motor? The line current is equal to the phase current. The phase voltage is higher than the line voltage. The phase current is higher than the line current. The line voltage is equal to the phase voltage.	The line current is equal to the phase current.
8	AC generators are rated in _____ HP. KVA. KwA. Kw.	KVA.
9	What units measure counter electromotive force or back EMF? Volts. Ohms. Ampere. Farads.	Volts.
10	Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and insulation test ? Megger test each phase to phase separately. Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase. All of these. Megger test each phase separately to earth.	All of these.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 11

#	Question	Right answers
1	How much higher than full load current is motor starting current when starting direct on-line? 2 to 3 times. 5 to 7 times. 9 to 12 times. 12 to 15 times.	5 to 7 times.
2	In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water or oils, what corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again? Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80 Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.	Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80
3	When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the following is a feasible sequence of activities ? Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. + 45 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8 sec: the power is restored.	Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8 sec: the power is restored.
4	What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator ? To prevent over speeding. To maintain good load sharing. To prevent the generator being run as a motor. To prevent main circuit overload.	To prevent the generator being run as a motor.
5	The best way of testing the "stand-by" function of the emergency diesel alternator is by _____ starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any leakages or deficiencies. causing a total black-out on the ship, for example in drydock or when time is available in port. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board. switching on the `test run` button on the emergency diesel switchboard.	by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board.
6	What type of instrument can be used to locate an earthed field coil in a synchronous motor ? An ohmeter. A voltmeter. A frequency meter. A wheatstone bridge.	An ohmeter.
7	What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system? No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth. The opposite line fuse will trip due to overload. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip.	No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth.
8	If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs has this alternator got ? Eight. Two. Four. Six.	Four.
9	What type of equipment is represented by this symbol? A compound motor. A shunt motor. A DC series motor. A DC combined series and shunt motor.	A shunt motor.
10	In extreme circumstances what is the allowable max & min voltage tolerance? 85% - 120%. 75% - 125%. 70% - 130%. 90% - 110%.	85% - 120%.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 12

#	Question	Right answers
1	What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of an alternator? Running. Hot after stopping. Cooled down to hand-warm. Cooled down to ambient temperature.	Hot after stopping.
2	When a DC generator is short circuited, what limits the short circuit current? The generator`s internal resistance (ER). When the cables start melting. The mechanical size of the switch. There is no limit.	The generator`s internal resistance (ER).
3	How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a three-phase alternator? Four. Three. Six. Two.	Two.
4	The line-to-line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 Amps. What is the phase current? 28.0 Amps. 22.72 Amps. 16.18 Amps. 48.44 Amps.	16.18 Amps.
5	What is the purpose of a Tacho generator ? To measure revolutions per minute (RPM). To measure the direction of shaft rotation. To measure the relationship between impedance and frequency. To measure impedance.	To measure revolutions per minute (RPM).
6	The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by: A tripped bus circuit breaker. Excessive prime mover speed. Failure of the exciter generator. The generator`s rotating speed is 10% below rated.	Failure of the exciter generator.
7	What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of a motor or alternator? Cooled down to ambient temperature. Running. Hot after stopping. Cooled down to hand-warm.	Hot after stopping.
8	Where is the shore power supply line to be connected to supply this ship`s electric plant ? On T. On CP. On CE. On TT.	On TT.
9	In an alternator, what controls the generated Voltage? Number of poles. Excitation current. Size of the stator windings. Generator speed.	Excitation current.
10	What are the items `CD` shown in this ship`s electric plant diagram ? Control desks. Starting boxes. Distribution panels. Transformers.	Distribution panels.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 13

#	Question	Right answers
1	What information would you find on the name plate of any electric motor ? Maker, voltage, full load current, power, frequency, phases, speed RPM. Maker, voltage, horsepower, phases, BIL rating, polarity. Voltage, current, horsepower, phases and polarity, speed. Voltage, current, kWatt, frequency, phases, speed, impedance.	Maker, voltage, full load current, power, frequency, phases, speed RPM.
2	Name the three conditions which must prevail to parallel one alternator with another? Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase. Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase.	Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase.
3	What type of equipment is this symbol showing? A DC shunt motor. A DC combined shunt and series motor. A DC series motor. An AC shunt motor.	A DC series motor.
4	Which of the following groups of motors are all DC motors? Synchronous and compound. Induction and synchronous. Shunt, series and compound. Series and induction.	Shunt, series and compound.
5	What are items `T` shown in this ships electric plant schematic diagram ? Terminal boxes. Transit line connector units. Transformers. Thyristor converters.	Transformers.
6	In a DC generator, where is the current generated? In the field windings. In the commutator. In the shunt windings. In the armature windings.	In the armature windings.
7	What determines the output voltage of an AC alternator? Strength of magnetic field. RPM of the prime mover. Number of rotor windings. Number of poles.	Strength of magnetic field.
8	When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the first place concerning the auxiliary diesels and electric power supply ? That the diesels are exactly sharing 50 % of the total load if two are running in parallel or 1/3 of the load with three in parallel. That none of the diesels is running at more than 70 % of the load, if so, an additional diesel to be put in parallel. That the load, Hertz and Voltage are normal, any other power requirements are in Chief Engineer`s standing orders, number of of generators on load. That the voltage, the kVA, the kVAR, the amperage and the excitation load are acceptable.	That the load, Hertz and Voltage are normal, any other power requirements are in Chief Engineer`s standing orders, number of of generators on load.
9	It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i.e. as a motor. What are the circumstances for this to occur ? Where two generators are running in parallel. Where three generators are running in parallel. When the alternator in question has lost prime mover input. Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply occurs.	When the alternator in question has lost prime mover input.
10	When taking over the engine room watch, what should you verify on the electrical main switch board ? Power Generation, power distribution inclusive secondary circuit, any unusual power consumer switched on/off, earth faults main and secondary systems. The alternator on load, voltage, amperage, power supply, frequency. The voltage and amperage delivered to the power consumers, the condition of the transformers, the non-essential consumers. The setting of the non-essential consumer trip system, the setting of the overload system, the actual power as percentage of total capacity available.	Power Generation, power distribution inclusive secondary circuit, any unusual power consumer switched on/off, earth faults main and secondary systems.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 14

#	Question	Right answers
1	Give the reason why shore power and ship`s power should never be run in parallel ? Ship`s supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA. The shore frequency is rigid, the ship`s frequency is not. No common earth is available. Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship.	No common earth is available.
2	What is the purpose of a " Y/Delta " starter ? To reduce the starting current in large AC motors. To reduce the start time for an AC motor. To start either a D or an Y connected motor. To regulate large AC motors.	To reduce the starting current in large AC motors.
3	A DC series motor is used to operate a pump driven with a belt, what happens if the belt breaks? The motor will continue to run at its original speed. The motor will stop. The motor will over speed and run out of control. The motor will slow down.	The motor will over speed and run out of control.
4	What determines the speed in a squirrel cage AC motor? The supply current and Voltage. The supply current cycles/second. The number of poles built into the motor. The supply current cycles/second and the number of poles built into the motor.	The supply current cycles/second and the number of poles built into the motor.
5	What are the items marked `PM` in this electric starter diagram ? Stop position switches. Start position switches. Start push buttons. Stop push buttons.	Start push buttons.
6	In these circuits current I1 and I2 are the same and all resistors R have the same value. In which circuit will the voltage be greater ? Circuit 1. Circuit 2. They have the same voltage. Voltage will remain the same bu the current will vary.	Circuit 2.
7	Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 Volt. What is the phase voltage? 311.13 Volt. 440 Volt. 220 Volt. 254.33 Volt.	440 Volt.
8	What is the main disadvantage with main shaft driven alternators? Only available at sea. Low speed limits voltage output. Limited power output. Engine speed variation.	Engine speed variation.
9	For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is the device usually set? 115% 110 % 125 % 120 %	110 %
10	When you make a visit to the emergency diesel generator during your engine room watch, what should you look out for? Radiator fresh water level, oil level in sump tank, preheating temperature of cylinders, charging level of batteries, diesel in stand-by mode. That the voltage and the frequency displayed on the emergency switch board is the same as on the main switch board. That the steam heater or electrical heater in the emergency diesel room is switched on. That the battery charger is not accidentally kept in ON position, that the door of the generator room is always closed behind you.	Radiator fresh water level, oil level in sump tank, preheating temperature of cylinders, charging level of batteries, diesel in stand-by mode.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 15

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the purpose of the part circled in red ? The air cooling inlet. To house the terminals. To access the windings. To show the markings of the motor.	To house the terminals.
2	What could cause sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor? Current overload. Wrong types of brushes. The strength of the field. Any of the other options.	Any of the other options.
3	In a `shunt` DC motor how are the pole windings connected? Separately from the armature output. In series with the armature. In parallel with the armature. Both parallel and in series.	In parallel with the armature.
4	Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do? Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started. All of these.	All of these.
5	Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and insulation test? Megger test each phase to phase separately. Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase. All of these. Megger test each phase separately to earth.	All of these.
6	What prevents a stationary alternator from being connected to live bus-bars? Overload trip. No volt trip. Low cycle trip. Reverse power trip.	No volt trip.
7	What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor ? At the rated current. At 5-15% over the rated current. At 200% of the rated current. At 10% below the rated current.	At 5-15% over the rated current.
8	What is component number 2 ? The starter winding. The stator winding. The rotor winding. The permanent magnet.	The stator winding.
9	What method should be used for achieving `reduced voltage starting` for large AC motors? Auto transformer. Line resistance starter. Any of these options. Star-Delta motor starter.	Any of these options.
10	For what type of load would a star/delta starter be employed? An air start compressor. For very heavy loads composed of resistors. A centrifugal pump. A small compressor.	An air start compressor.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 16

#	Question	Right answers
1	In a series wound generator what is the connection between field and armature currents? Shunt connected. No connection. Parallel connection. Series connected.	Series connected.
2	What is the purpose of the parts circled in red ? To assist induction currents. To dispense with the cooling fan. To assist the motor cooling. Ventilation slots.	To assist the motor cooling.
3	If a cable length 100m, dia.1.25 mm has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length cable of same material with dia.0.75 mm has a resistance of 25 Ohm? 15 metres. 20 metres. 25 metres. 30 metres.	30 metres.
4	What is the function of component number 6 ? To ensure correct balancing of the rotor. To seal the motor internals. To provide ventilation. To locate the bearing.	To locate the bearing.
5	The commutator of a DC generator is examined and is found to have a smooth appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would you take? None, this is hoe it should appear. Clean the commutator with emery cloth until the surface is bright and burnished copper. Change the brushes. Change the brush springs.	None, this is hoe it should appear.
6	Why is synchronization required when one alternator is to be paralelled with another? If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the generators have been connected. Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected. If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged. The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.	If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged.
7	Can the speed of an asynchronous motor be regulated ? Yes, using resistors in series with the stator winding. No, because speed can only be regulated by adjusting the voltage of the rotor winding. No, because the windings are not designed for that. Yes, if a thyristor regulator is used.	Yes, if a thyristor regulator is used.
8	What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor? At 100% of the rated current. At the rated current. At 5-15% over the rated current. At 33-50% of the rated current.	At 5-15% over the rated current.
9	The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to _____ the speed of the alternator. the output current of the alternator. the output voltage of the alternator. the output voltage and the output current of the alternator.	the output voltage and the output current of the alternator.
10	What is the purpose of the component number 5 ? To balance the motor To ensure smooth speed pick-up. Motor cooling. To absorb vibration.	Motor cooling.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 17

#	Question	Right answers
1	An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the "over current" relay, What action would you take ? Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan. Increase the current setting on the "over current" relay. Replace the "over current" relay. Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.	Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.
2	How many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting current? 5 - 7 times. 3 - 5 times. 7 - 9 times. 2 - 3 times.	2 - 3 times.
3	What determines cycles per second in an AC alternator? The number of poles. The number of conductors. The generator speed and number of poles. The generator speed.	The generator speed and number of poles.
4	What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time ? Nothing special. The lights may be a dimmed a little. The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise. The generator may trip on overload.	The generator may trip on overload.
5	Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do ? All of these. Switch off the main switch for the motor and remove the fuses. Inform the duty engineer what you are working on. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started.	All of these.
6	How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working? By raising the generator frequency. By raising the alternator voltage. By lowering the alternator voltage. By lowering the generator frequency.	By lowering the generator frequency.
7	How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator`s Reverse Trip Relay operates? 1 - 3 seconds. 3 - 5 seconds. 5 - 7 seconds. 7 - 8 seconds.	3 - 5 seconds.
8	What units is the output of DC generators rated in? HP. KVA. KW. KwA.	KW.
9	In a shunt generator the armature current is 100 Amps and the field current 5 Amps. What is the load current of the generator? 105 Amps. 100 Amps. 95 Amps. 110 Amps.	95 Amps.
10	Where is a generator`s Reverse Power protection relay fitted? Between the breaker connecting bars. Between the breaker and the consumers. Between the generator and the consumers. Between the generator and the bus bars.	Between the generator and the bus bars.

Operate Alternators, Generators. Test 18

#	Question	Right answers
1	Why are alternator poles fabricated in laminated form? Prevent distortion due to temperature variation. Makes adjustment of stator weight easier. For ease of manufacture. Prevent build up of unwanted eddy currents.	Prevent build up of unwanted eddy currents.
2	A six pole 50Hz three phase induction motor has a full load at 950 rpm. What will the speed of the motor be at half load? 1900 rpm. 475 rpm. 1000 rpm. 975 rpm.	975 rpm.
3	What is the purpose of thermistors fitted to motor windings? Prevent over-speeding. Protect from overheating. Short circuit protection. Prevent high starting current.	Protect from overheating.
4	Which area of the DC generator requires the most maintenance? Bearings. Main field windings. Switchboard breaker. Commutator and brushes.	Commutator and brushes.
5	How would you test the insulation on an AC motor? By carrying out a Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter). By carrying out a Phase balance test. By carrying out a Megger test. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test).	By carrying out a Megger test.
6	A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested. What precautions would you take ? Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and megger test. Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger. Disconnect all cables to the motor. Use an `AVO` meter instead of a `Megger` for the test.	Disconnect all cables to the motor.
7	When synchronising a generator what does clockwise movement of the synchronising dial indicate? The incoming generator is running faster than the generator on load. Both generators are running at synchronous speed. The cycles are the same on the bus bars and incoming generator. Voltage is the same on both generators.	The incoming generator is running faster than the generator on load.
8	When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor? When the motor has cooled down after use. When the motor has been warmed up 5 When the motor has been carefully cleaned. When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature.	When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature.
9	Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps more than the second generator. What is the best course of action ? Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level. Adjust the speed of one generator. Replace the A.V.R of the generator which has the highest current output. Adjust the speed of both generators.	Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level.
10	Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be caused by _____ the wrong types of brushes. the strength of the field. any of these. current overload.	any of these.

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of a new galley hot-plate is measured to be 30 Mohm. When three identical hot-plates are tested together their combined IR will be: 90 Mohm 10 Mohm 30 Mohm 3 Mohm	10 Mohm
2	The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red= bright Yellow= dark Blue= dim light earth - hard earth - no fault no fault - hard earth - light earth light earth - no fault - hard earth hard earth - light earth - no fault	no fault - hard earth - light earth
3	Check-synchroniser equipment is often installed to: Allow auto-synchronising to take place Ensure fair equal sharing between generators Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits Permit faster paralleling	Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits
4	Due to failure of one of the carbon brushes the excitation voltage is lost on one alternator that is operating in parallel. Will that alternator then: Continue to share the active load (kW) but have very high reactive load (kVAR) Try to take all the load and so trip the main circuit breaker Completely loose its share of the load causing the auxiliary engine to speed up Overload due to reduced voltage output and increased current	Completely loose its share of the load causing the auxiliary engine to speed up
5	A 10% reduction in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely consequence for each motor powered from this generator is to: Increase motor power by about 10% Increase motor speed by about 10% Reduce motor volt drop by about 10% Reduce motor speed by about 10%	Reduce motor speed by about 10%
6	"Protective discrimination" means the progressive grading of sizes/tripping times of: Generators and motors. Magnetic and thermal current transformers. Line fuses and overcurrent relays 440 V and 220 V transformers.	Line fuses and overcurrent relays
7	A 3-phase induction motor is rated at 200 A.Its initial direct- on-line starting current will be approximately: 500 A 1000 A 100 A 5000 A	1000 A
8	When a blackout occurs: what should be your first reaction? Cancel audible alarms Inform the bridge about the reason for blackout, and expected time to restart. Inform the Chief Engineer Investigate the cause of the blackout	Inform the bridge about the reason for blackout, and expected time to restart.
9	An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because: It satisfies the SOLAS requirements for ship safety The ship`s total load can be shared between main and emergency generators The main diesel generator(s) can be taken out of service for overhaul or repair It satisfies the need to be environmentally "friendly"	It satisfies the SOLAS requirements for ship safety
10	Choose the group of electrical power supplies that best fits the identification of "Emergency" Batteries and No 1 diesel Shaft generator and emergency diesel Emergency diesel and batteries No 1 diesel and No 2 diesel	Emergency diesel and batteries

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	After main power is restored, a timed sequential restart of motor-driven auxiliaries is necessary to avoid: Overloading creating earth faults Overvoltage due to current surges Over-frequency due to overspeed of generator Generator overload due to many motors starting at simultaneously	Generator overload due to many motors starting at simultaneously
2	Choose the group of electrical power supplies that best fits the identification of "Mains" No. 1 diesel and No. 2 diesel Emergency diesel and batteries Batteries and No. 1 diesel Shaft generator and emergency diesel	No. 1 diesel and No. 2 diesel
3	An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A bilge pump circuit. A second earth fault occurs on the yellow line of a 10 A ventilation fan circuit. The likely outcome is that: An open circuit occurs between earth fault and both motors trip out Both motors trip out on overload A short circuit occurs between earth fault and the bilge pump fuse blows A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan fuse blows	A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan fuse blows
4	A ships 3 - phase a.c. circuit has 440 V and 220 V transformer linked sections. The effect of a single earth fault on a 220 V line will cause the following earth lamp indication: In 440 V section: One lamp dim. In 220 V section: One lamp dim. In 440 section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 section: All lamps dark. In 440 V section: Two lamps bright. In 220 V section: Two lamps bright. In 440 V section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 V section: One lamp dim.	In 440 V section: Two lamps bright. In 220 V section: Two lamps bright.
5	If the A.C. line current in a generator is doubled, the heating effect in the stator windings will: Remain about the same. Half. Double. Quadruple	Quadruple
6	A motor is protected by a thermal overcurrent relay. After tripping on overload it will not be possible to reset the overcurrent relay because the: Starter isolator automatically applies an interlock. Oil dash-pot has also to be reset. Line contactor spring also has to be reset Bimetallic strips need time to cool down	Bimetallic strips need time to cool down
7	A 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at its rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open circuit) occurs in one line. The likely outcome will be: Line currents: 150 A,150 A,150 A. Trip condition: fuses blow on short circuit. Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on overload. Line currents: 0 A, 150 A, 300 A. Trip condition: trip on overload. Line currents: 75 A, 75 A, 75 A. Trip condition: no trip but speed falls.	Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on overload.
8	The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide: Open circuit protection. Short circuit protection. Overload protection. Undervoltage protection.	Short circuit protection.
9	When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard and the generator is AVR controlled, the voltage will: Initially fall, then reset to the set value. Remain approximately constant, due to governor action. Initially rise, then reset to the set value. Remain approximately constant, due to AVR action.	Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
10	Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the emergency switchboard is supplied from: An emergency battery charger. A compressed air driven generator. The main diesel generator or shaft generator. Emergency batteries	The main diesel generator or shaft generator.

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are respectively controlled by: Speed governor and load power factor Synchroscope and speed governor AVR and speed governor Voltmeter and frequency meter	AVR and speed governor
2	Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to check: Its readiness to perform as specified. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-drills. Its voltage/current characteristics. Its compliance with the shipbuilder`s recommendations.	Its readiness to perform as specified.
3	Unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load in order to avoid: Undue overspeeding. Undue overload on the switchboard. Undue overcurrent Undue temperature rise.	Undue overspeeding.
4	The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by: The internal volt drop and the load current. The diesel speed and load current. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism. The diesel speed and excitation current.	The diesel speed and excitation current.
5	For ideal synchronising, the phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage should be: 0 30 90 30	0
6	The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the synchroscope reaches the "5 to 12" position. This to allow for: Circuit breaker operating time Synchroscope pointer time lag Synchroscope error Generator phase difference error	Circuit breaker operating time
7	A transformer with 10:1 turns ratio and rated 50 kVA, 2400/240 Volts, 60 Hz, is used to step down the voltage to a distribution system. The low tension voltage is to be kept constant at 240 Volts. What load impedance connected to the low-tension side will cause the transformer to be fully loaded? 115 Ohms 230 Ohms 2.3 Ohms 1.15 Ohms	1.15 Ohms
8	A 450 volt 3 phase brushless alternator will have the following combination of items mounted on the rotor: Excitation field winding/rectifier bank/main field winding Excitation field winding/main field winding 3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field winding 3 phase excitation winding/ main field winding	3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field winding
9	A 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is: 1000 Ohms 10 000 Ohms 10 000 000 Ohms 10 Ohms	10 000 000 Ohms
10	For two generators running in parallel, their share of additional load (kW) will be determined by the: The temperature difference between the generator rotors Governor droop settings on each prime mover Voltage droop setting on each AVR The power factor af the additional load	Governor droop settings on each prime mover

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which alternative is correct for measuring current over the load L? Figure 3. Figure 2. Figure 1. Figure 4.	Figure 3.
2	A three phase alternator is connected singularly to the main switchboard. The switchboard instruments show 440 Volts/950 amperes. With a power factor of 0.8 what will be the kW load? 334.4 kW 522.5 kW 905 kW 579.2 kW	579.2 kW
3	What is Hz the abbreviation for? Frequency in an Alternating Current (AC) Revolution per minute Frequency in Direct Current (DC) Measure for Resistance	Frequency in an Alternating Current (AC)
4	Will it matter to the accuracy of the measurement how you are installing a resistance element in a thermo-well Will have a minor influence on the measurement Will only result in mechanical problems No influence at all Wrong installation will result in a major deviation in measurement	Wrong installation will result in a major deviation in measurement
5	After successful synchronising the kW and kVar loading are respectively transferred by the following controls: Voltage regulator and synchroscope Speed governor and load power factor Speed governor and voltage regulator Current regulator and voltage regulator	Speed governor and voltage regulator
6	It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power (kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor will cause it to run: Faster due to increased voltage Cooler due to increased speed Hotter due to increased current Slower due to increased current	Hotter due to increased current
7	P = U x I x Root of 3) x cos (fi) What is the formula for I ? Formula 3 Formula 4 Formula 1 Formula 2	Formula 1
8	What is the purpose of the alternator reverse power trip? To prevent parallel operation if the excitation field voltage is reversed To prevent the alternator from being paralleled if it is out of phase with the main switchboard To give automatic disconnection of the circuit breaker when you are taking the alternator off the switchboard To prevent the alternator from "motoring" by being supplied power from other parallel alternator	To prevent the alternator from "motoring" by being supplied power from other parallel alternator
9	If you alter the field excitation voltage of one alternator operating in parallel, this will cause change in that alternators: None of the mentioned alternatives Reactive load (kVAR) Active load (kW) Frequency	Reactive load (kVAR)
10	When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that the reactive load is evenly shared so that the total alternator loads are evenly shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active and reactive loads, which side of the vector diagram shown represents the reactive load? None of the mentioned alternatives (Y) (X) Either (X) or (Y)	(Y)

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase alternator operating at rated output power are supplied by: Independent power supply and rectifier unit The main switchboard via a three phase rectifier The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage regulator Independent battery supply	The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage regulator
2	Generator 1 and 2 are working in parallel. Prime-mover 2 suffers a total fuel loss. The likely outcome is: Generatorset 2 trips on reverse speed No.1 machine overloads and trips out on overspeed No.1 machine overspeeds and trips out on overload No.2 generator trips on reverse power	No.2 generator trips on reverse power
3	Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short circuited or disconnected in order to: Prevent charging of capacitive components within the automatic voltage regulator causing false regulation when generator restarts Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator during insulation testing Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester Protect insulation resistance tester from being damaged	Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester
4	A star connected induction motor operates on 220 V with power factor 0.7 and efficiency of 82 %. Its output is 8 HP. What is the phase, current and voltage? I phase is 12.8 Ampere , phase voltage is 220 Volt. I phase is 27.3 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt. I phase is 15.8 Ampere, phase voltage is 220 Volt. I phase is 22.7 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.	I phase is 27.3 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.
5	How is the set pressure (opening pressure) adjusted on the cylinder head safety valve of a diesel engine? By adjusting the distance of the valve cone. By adjusting the lift height of the spindle. By fitting distance washers. By adjusting the spring pressure.	By adjusting the spring pressure.
6	Item No 2 of this Wheatstone Bridge is _____ the field wire fed by amplifier A the feed-back coil fed by amplifier A the field balance indicating field wire of amplifier output the thermal resistance fed by the output of amplifier A	the thermal resistance fed by the output of amplifier A
7	Indicate the correct characteristic of the amplifier "A". A frequency range less than 1kHz An input impedance lower than 1,000 Ohm A voltage gain greater than 100,000 An output impedance greater than 10,000 Ohm	A voltage gain greater than 100,000
8	The potential of this thermocouple bridge is zero if all connections are kept at the same temperature. Why is the indication of the potentiometer zero ? Because the connections in A and B and in C and D are opposed Because of the second balancing couple B. Because of the copper (Cu) calibration wiring connected to C and D. Because A and B couples are opposed.	Because the connections in A and B and in C and D are opposed
9	What will be the binary output at E ? 0 1 0 1 1 1	0
10	What is the function of the circuit shown here ? Three phase AC converter. Three phase oscillator. DC to AC voltage converter. Three phase rectifier.	Three phase rectifier.

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	What control equipment drawing is shown here ? An electric pressure transmitter system. An electric P-controller. An electric differentiating amplifier. An electric temperature measurement scanner.	An electric P-controller.
2	A six-pole asynchronous motor is connected to a power supply with a frequency of 50 Hz. If the rotor bar frequency is 2.3 Hz, what will be the speed of the motor ? 972 RPM 954 RPM 928 RPM 912 RPM	954 RPM
3	In this drawing, the triangle marked "A" represents _____ a current converter. an operational amplifier. an ampere-differential transmitter. an analog converter.	an operational amplifier.
4	How is the differentiating action of this PID controller obtained ? By C and R2 By C and R3 By C and RL By C and R1	By C and R1
5	The second potentiometer of this electric command system is located in the steering gear. What moves this potentiometer ? The telemotor. The rudder angle indicator. The rudder position via the trunion connection. The eccentric pushrod on the HELE-SHAW pump.	The rudder position via the trunion connection.
6	In these integrator circuits the air flow through the restrictor and the current through the resistance _____ increases with time. is negative. remains constant. decreases with time.	decreases with time.
7	What is the difference in function between these electrical and the pneumatic integrators ? They work in opposite directions None The pneumatic integrator is slower The electric integrator is slower	None
8	Two 3 phase 4160 Volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load of the system is 1050 kW with power factor 0.75 lagging. If alternator No 1 is carrying 700 kW at 80 % power factor lagging _____ the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0.658. the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0.7352. the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0.7064. the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0.6914.	the Power Factor of alternator No 2 is lagging 0.658.
9	From the sample diagrams shown, choose the correct voltage waveform measured across the load. 3 4 1 2	3
10	Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3 phase, 240 V, 60 Hz. The load of A is 60 kW, 90% power factor and the load of B is 80 kW, 70 % power factor. What is the total load ? 472.8 Amps 458.8 Amps 429.8 Amps 416.8 Amps	429.8 Amps

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse Power Relay`s pick up setting be ? 8 - 10 % 5 - 12 % 5 - 10 % 10 - 15 %	5 - 12 %
2	An ideal operational amplifier is characterised by _____ limited open loop voltage gain. infinite input impedance. infinite output impedance. limited bandwidth.	infinite input impedance.
3	What is a high-pass filter ? A circuit that will only pass a high voltage. A circuit that blocks a high voltage. A circuit that will limit resistance. A circuit that will only pass high frequency signals.	A circuit that will only pass high frequency signals.
4	Which of these formulas is used to calculate capacitive reactance (Xc) ? D A B C	B
5	The size of any electrical conductor should be such that in practice, the voltage drop at full load will not exceed _____ 1 % 2 % 3 % 5 %	2 %
6	The resistance characteristic of Platinum is linear. The resistance characteristic of Nickel is non-linear. How can the characteristic of Nickel be made linear ? By fitting a compensation cable By fitting another resistance in parallel By fitting another resistance in series By using a three-wire system Wheatstone Bridge	By fitting another resistance in parallel
7	A six pole asynchronous motor is fed from a 60 Hz circuit and has a slip of 5 %. What is the motor speed ? 1140 RPM 960 RPM 1720 RPM 1560 RPM	1140 RPM
8	These graphs are, left, the step input and, right, the output response of a controller. What characteristics are shown ? The integrator differential characteristics. The controller response output characteristics. The integrator characteristics. The PI characteristics.	The integrator characteristics.
9	The function of this measuring system is to _____ convert a digital signal into a pressure. convert an electric temperature measurement into a pneumatic signal. convert Wheatstone Bridge readings into remote pressure readings. convert Field Effect Transistor readings into a temperature reading.	convert an electric temperature measurement into a pneumatic signal.
10	The three conductor system used by Wheatstone Bridge lay-outs is intended to provide _____ compensation for changing conductor resistance by changing temperature. zero setting at all times by variable resistances to be measured. balancing of the bridge by very high or very low temperatures. conversion of an electrical signal into a pneumatic signal.	compensation for changing conductor resistance by changing temperature.

Marine Electrotechnology. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which resistor determines the proportional band on this electronic proportional integrating controller ? R2 R3 Rf R1	R3
2	In the output characteristics (right) of this controller, which response lines are clearly shown ? The proportional output, offset and integration. The proportional, integration and differentiation. The proportional, variation and integration. The output, variation and differentiation.	The proportional, integration and differentiation.
3	For which kind of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ? A proportional integrating-differentiating controller A proportional indicating differentiator A pneumatic differential summator A pressure indicating controller	A proportional integrating-differentiating controller
4	The characteristics shown here indicate a ramp input on the left together with the corresponding output on the right of _____ a pure differentiator. a proportional integrating controller. a proportional controller. a pure integrator.	a pure integrator.
5	For which control instrument are these the input (left) and the output or response (right) characteristics ? A pressure controlling data register. A pneumatic differentiating controller. A pressure differentiator. A proportional differentiating controller.	A proportional differentiating controller.
6	For which type of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ? A proportional integrating controller. A PI differentiating controller. A pneumatic indicating controller. A pressure indicating controller.	A proportional integrating controller.
7	Fitting a restriction R1 in the supply to the proportional feedback of this PID controller ensures that for an initial small variation on the input, the initial response on the output will be _____ very weak. proportional. strong. zero.	strong.
8	What does this symbol represent? A differential trigger. A binary register. A binary flip-flop. A digital amplifier.	A binary flip-flop.
9	The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting ? 2 - 3 % 4 - 6 % 6 - 7 % 0.5 - 1 %	2 - 3 %
10	For this PID controller to act only as a P (proportional) controller, what should be the arrangement of restricting valves R1 and R2 ? R1 closed, R2 closed R1 closed, R2 fully open R1 fully open, R2 closed R1 fully open, R2 fully open	R1 fully open, R2 closed

Instrumentation. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is meant by being intrinsically safe? Electric wiring executed by approved manufacture? Any electrical product, being water resistant? Product having a special wiring system? Can not produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)?	Can not produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)?
2	How do you express the accuracy of an instrument In % of deviation In % of full scale In % of range In % of gauge readings	In % of full scale
3	Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the correct place Can be installed anywhere in the piping system The control system is depending on the best possible process signal It is important to have easy access to the transmitter for maintenance It must be easy to observe for troubleshooting	The control system is depending on the best possible process signal
4	Thermo-elements will typically have No influence at all on the readings Relatively wide range of temperature measurement Relatively narrow range of temperature measurement Medium range of temperature measurement	Relatively wide range of temperature measurement
5	Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate? Remote level controller with indicator Local level controller with indicator Level switch for centre-tank Low carbon incinerator	Remote level controller with indicator
6	Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does that mean? Intrinsically safe. Explosion proof. Internally explosion proof. Not safe in gas dangerous area.	Intrinsically safe.
7	Thermistor will typically have Relatively non linear characteristic Relatively linear characteristic Inaccurate measurement Variable reliability	Relatively non linear characteristic
8	When the cable length from the temperature sensor to the place where we want to read the temperature exceeds approx. 10 meters we normally have to, in case of a Pt 100, in some way compensate for the cable resistance. Do we also have to do this if we choose to use a T802 temperature sensor? No Yes Not applicable Depends on temperature to be measured.	No
9	Temperature sensors may be marked Pt 100. What does it mean? 20 ohm at 100 100 ohm at 20 0 ohm at 100 100 ohm at 0	100 ohm at 0
10	Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate? Pressure-reducing regulator. Pressure relief valve Pressure switch Flow controller	Pressure-reducing regulator.

Instrumentation. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the most common signal from an I/P converter? 0-10V/3-15 PSI 4-20mA/3-15 PSI 0-1 mA/1-2 BAR 0-20 mA/0-20 PSI	4-20mA/3-15 PSI
2	Liquid level in tanks is often measured by measuring the hydrostatic head or differential pressure. One method is the air bubble type which is illustrated here. Calculate the level in the tank, utilizing the figures given on the drawing. 640 cm 500 cm 200 cm 320 cm	500 cm
3	The pressure inlet to a pressure gauge is varied from zero to full scale and back to zero again. The output (indicating pressure) versus true pressure is shown in the diagr.The non - coincidence of loading and unloading curve is due to internal friction in the instrument. What do we call this phenomenon? Threshold Dead band Hysteresis Resolution	Hysteresis
4	The diagram is a calibration diagram for a pressure gauge. What do you call the slope of the calibration curve? Repeatability Off-set Sensitivity Hysteresis	Sensitivity
5	What is the difference between a THERMOSTAT and a TEMPERATURE TRANSMITTER, if any? The thermostat has one or more contacts (open or closed) depending on the temperature/setting. The temperature transmitter converts a temperature signal to an electric signal. There is no difference. The thermostat gives out an analogue signal depending on the switch setting. The temperature transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the temperature. The temperature transmitter is a digital component while the thermostat is an analogue component.	The thermostat has one or more contacts (open or closed) depending on the temperature/setting. The temperature transmitter converts a temperature signal to an electric signal.
6	Due to the relative low resistance of a Pt 100 sensor we might have to compensate for the cable-resistance to ensure a correct reading. Which of the 4 alternatives given is correct for the connection of this compensation resistance. Figure 2. Figure 1. Figure 4. Figure 3.	Figure 3.
7	The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The standard output signal is 4-20 mA. What is the output signal when the process value is 100 bar. 12 mA 10 mA 24 mA 4 mA	12 mA
8	When you are calibrating an instrument what is the most common second step in the procedure (consult the manual) justment of Zero-point Check linearity Adjustment of span Adjustment of range	Check linearity
9	In what kind of measuring equipment can we find a Bourdon-tube? In a flow metre. In a pressure transmitter. In an A/D converter. In a temperature transmitter.	In a pressure transmitter.
10	In a fresh water tank we are using a pressure transmitter with a range of 0-0.5 bar/4-20mA for level measurement.The transmitter is for different reasons installed 30 centimeters from the bottom of the tank,and the tank is 5 meters high. What will the output from the transmitter be when the tank is empty? 2 mA 4 mA. 5,2 mA. 2,8 mA.	4 mA.

Instrumentation. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the signal we measure from a NiCr/Ni thermocouple? Ohm. mA. Watt mV.	mV.
2	In connection with exhausts gas measurement with a thermocouple we are normally using an amplifier which gives a mA-signal out. Why is this done? The signal out from the thermocouple is also mA, but have to be amplified in order to give a good signal to the alarm system. This depends on the length of the compensation-cable. To stabilize the signal. The signal out from a thermocouple is mV,and can not be transferred over any longer distance without loss of voltage, giving a very bad accuracy.	The signal out from a thermocouple is mV,and can not be transferred over any longer distance without loss of voltage, giving a very bad accuracy.
3	Temperature sensors may be marked T 802. What does it mean? 100 ohm at 20 20 ohm at 100 802 ohm at 20 20 ohm at 802	802 ohm at 20
4	What is a typical problem when it is something wrong with the span of an instrument 100% output is accurate, but Zero-point is wrong Zero-point is accurate, but 100% input is not giving 100% output Zero-point and 100% are correct, but not 50% Linearity problems	Zero-point is accurate, but 100% input is not giving 100% output
5	What is the advantage of a transmitter with a narrow measurement range Easy installation Do not need any calibration Better linearity and increased accuracy Lower purchase cost	Better linearity and increased accuracy
6	What is the meaning of the term The difference between maximum and minimum measurement that gives a standard output signal The maximum output signal when you have a minimum process value The length between the connecting flanges Type of standard output signal according to ISO	The difference between maximum and minimum measurement that gives a standard output signal
7	What is the meaning of instrument calibration Comparing input and output values against a documented standard Comparing two instruments of the same type Adjusting size to fit process connection Turning gauge too an easy reading position	Comparing input and output values against a documented standard
8	Which of the following detectors will you choose for detecting smoke from fire? Thermometer Thermocouple Strain gauge Ionization type	Ionization type
9	In installations of INTRINSICALLY SAFE equipment it is required that all equipment should be separated from non-intrinsically safe equipment, and to be of a special colour. What colour is that? Red Orange Blue Green/yellow	Blue
10	What is the difference between a PRESSURE SWITCH and a PRESSURE TRANSMITTER, if any? There is no difference. The pressure switch gives out an analogue signal depending on the switch setting.The pressure transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the pressure. The pressure switch gives out a digital signal dependent on pressure and temperatur.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal to a digital signal. The pressure switch has contact(s) that will change between open and closed position.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal into an electric signal.	The pressure switch has contact(s) that will change between open and closed position.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal into an electric signal.

Instrumentation. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which of the following instruments is normally part of a control-loop Plotter Gauge Transducer Indicator	Transducer
2	When you are calibrating an instrument what is the most common first step in the procedure (consult the manual) Adjustment of span Adjustment of range Adjustment of linearity Adjustment of Zero-point and span	Adjustment of Zero-point and span
3	You have to choose one of the following instruments for measuring pressure in an air bottle in measuring range 0 - 35 BAR. Which instrument will you install? U-type H2O manometer U-type Hg manometer Bourdon Tube manometer Bellow type manometer	Bourdon Tube manometer
4	Which type of temperature sensor is used in this temperature measuring system? Thermocouple sensor Platinum resistance sensor Thermistor sensor Quartz sensor	Thermocouple sensor
5	What is an I/P Transducer? A transducer that is inverting a pressure signal. A transducer that converts a pressure to a proportional electric signal. A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressure proportional to the current. A transducer that increase a pressure signal which is too low to give the desired effect.	A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressure proportional to the current.
6	Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the following descriptions are valid for a thermocouple? A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a small voltage. A semi-conductor device that exhibits a negative coefficient of resistance with temperature. A resistance device that exhibits a positive coefficient of resistance with temperature. A quartz crystal that changes its resonant frequency with temperature.	A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a small voltage.
7	Which of the listed sensors can `not` be utilized for detecting temperatures? Pt 500 Strain gauge Thermocouple Thermistor	Strain gauge
8	The manometer shown on the picture has an accuracy class 1.0. What is the measuring accuracy if the pointer indicates 6.0 bar? +/- 0.5 bar +/- 0.06 bar +/- 0.12 bar +/- 1.0 bar	+/- 0.06 bar
9	This is a simplified block diagram of a dc generator and its voltage regulator. Find the value of the feedback constant H if the reference VR is a 45-Volt battery and the terminal voltage Vt is to be 250 Volt. H = 5.5 H = - 0.178 H = 0.55 H = - 11.1	H = - 0.178
10	Which of the listed physical parameters can be measured by means of a manometer? Motion Pressure Strain Temperature	Pressure

Instrumentation. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	When calibrating an pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and ZERO. Please indicate in which order these adjustments should be done. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. After that Span setting should be checked again. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. After that Span setting should be checked gain. The order of adjustment is of no importance. First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then Zero should be rechecked.	First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then Zero should be rechecked.
2	Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric pressure. What do you call pressures measured relative to atmospheric pressure? Pressure drop Gauge pressure Atmospheric pressure Absolute pressure	Gauge pressure
3	Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric pressure. What do you call pressures measured relative to absolute zero? Gauge pressure Absolute pressure Pressure drop Vacuum pressure	Absolute pressure
4	U-tube manometers are often used to measure differential pressure. Which of the listed pressures is U-tube manometers mostly used for? High differential pressures Cargo pressure Absolute zero pressure Low differential pressures	Low differential pressures
5	What is an A/D and a D/A converter? A converter that converts an analogue signal to a digital signal and vice versa. A converter that converts alternating current into direct current and vice versa. An amplifier for direct current. A converter stabilising the voltage.	A converter that converts an analogue signal to a digital signal and vice versa.
6	Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate? Pressure relief valve, self-contained PH analyzer Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console Pressure indicator, installed locally	Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console
7	Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate? Pressure to electric current converter. Differential pressure transmitter Rectifier Inverter	Pressure to electric current converter.
8	Liquid flow through pipe lines is often measured by means of differential pressure across a restriction (orifice) in the pipe as illustrated by this figure. Which of the listed formulas will you utilize for calculating the volumetric flow F? Formula 2 Formula 3 Formula 1 Formula 4	Formula 4
9	Which type instrument is shown on this picture? Digital manometer Vacuum type manometer Electric Contact manometer Differential pressure manometer	Electric Contact manometer
10	This circuit symbol is an amplifier system and its frequency response diagram. Which control function is the system performing? Proportional + integral (PI) Proportional + derivate (PD) Proportional + integral + derivate (PID) Integral (I)	Proportional + integral (PI)

Instrumentation. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	When we are measuring flow of fluids with a fixed area flow meter, the name of the sensing device is: Orifice plate Float Turbine rotor Positive displacement rotor	Orifice plate
2	This block diagram illustrates an elementary control system. What do we call such system in general? Open loop feed back system Feed forward system Scmitt trigger Closed loop feed back system	Closed loop feed back system
3	The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal is 4-20 mA. What is the span of the output signal. 20 mA 24 mA 4 mA 16 mA	16 mA
4	Which of the following detectors will you choose for detecting torque of a steel shaft? Synchro Pyrometer Strain gauge Ultrasonic gauges	Strain gauge
5	Which of the following detectors will you use for detecting if a watertight steel door is closed or open? Synchro Strain gauge Transducer Proximity switch	Proximity switch
6	Temperatures are often measured by means of platinum resistance sensors. These curves are all calibration curves. Which of the curves is calibration curve for a Pt 100 sensor? Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1	Figure 1
7	The picture shows a liquid filled thermometer. Liquid filled thermometers and manometers are often installed onboard ships. What is the main purpose by the liquid filling of such pointer instruments? Compensating for changes in ambient temperature Reduce mechanical wear on the internal parts caused by vibration Keep the rear side of the front glass clean Avoid water penetration from outside	Reduce mechanical wear on the internal parts caused by vibration
8	These circuit diagrams illustrate four different methods of wiring between a Pt 100 temperature sensor and its signal processing electronics. Which of the wiring methods gives the best measuring accuracy? Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1	Figure 1
9	Which type temperature sensors are shown on this picture? Thermocouple sensors Thermistors type NTC Thermistor type PTC Resistance sensors	Resistance sensors
10	Which of the following temperature sensors does normally give the highest measuring accuracy? Thermocouple, NiCrNi Thermistor, NTC Thermistor, PTC Resistance sensor, Pt100	Resistance sensor, Pt100

Instrumentation. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	Temperature sensors of all types are normally mounted in a well, or pocket, when used in pipelines. Why? Suppress electro-magnetic interference between liquid in the pipe and the sensor. Allow removal of the sensor also when liquid is flowing in the pipe. Decrease the temperature gradient between the liquid and the sensor. Avoid electric current flowing from the sensor to the liquid.	Allow removal of the sensor also when liquid is flowing in the pipe.
2	In a fresh water tank we are using a pressure transmitter with a range of 0-0.5 bar / 4-20mA for level measurement. The transmitter is for different reasons installed 30 centimeters from the bottom of the tank, and the tank is 5 meters high. What will the output from the transmitter be when the tank is full? (Pending no calibration is made) 21,2 mA. 20 mA. 30 mA 18,8 mA.	18,8 mA.
3	In a fresh water tank with a height of 5 meters we shall use a pressure transmitter for level measurement. The tank has a vent-pipe leading to deck 8 meters above the top of the tank. What pressure shall we use as a guidance when ordering the pressure transducer? 0,8 Bar. 2,0 Bar. 1,3 Bar. 0,5 Bar.	1,3 Bar.
4	What is the definition of DEAD BAND? The largest difference in the output signal for the same change in the input signal. A missing electrical signal. The change needed in the input signal to produce a change in the output signal. The change in the output signal produced by a certain change in the input signal.	The change needed in the input signal to produce a change in the output signal.
5	This is an electronic temperature controller. You have been asked to adjust the controllers integrating action. Which button on the front of the controller shall be utilized for this adjustment? Pos. 7 Pos. 6 Pos. 2 Pos. 8	Pos. 8
6	When we are measuring viscosity with a restricted flow viscometer, the name of the sensing device is: Bourdon tube Capillary tube Rotating cylinder Capacitance probe	Capillary tube
7	Which of the following letter combinations represents a flow indicating controller on a process and instrumentation diagramv FLO FIR FIC LIR	FIC
8	Which of the following letter combinations represents a temperature controller on a process and instrumentation diagram PIC FIC TC TIC	TC
9	What is the purpose of the Oil Mist Detector? To detect oil mist (explosive atmosphere in the crankcase). To avoid hot spots in crankcase To avoid stuffing box leakages To detect the circulating oil	To detect oil mist (explosive atmosphere in the crankcase).
10	Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate? Thermocouple Triac Resistance temperature sensor Potentiometer	Resistance temperature sensor

Instrumentation. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the meaning of the term The type of measurement The maximum length of the connecting leads. The difference between possible maximum and minimum measurement The maximum output signal	The difference between possible maximum and minimum measurement
2	When we are measuring level of liquids with a differential pressure meter, the name of the sensing device is: Float Capacitance probe Positive displacement tube Pressure diaphragm	Pressure diaphragm
3	When we are measuring temperature with a thermistor, the name of the sensing device is: Platinium wire Temp sensitive semi-conductor Junction of two dissimilar metals Capacitance probe	Temp sensitive semi-conductor
4	When we are measuring salinity with a salinometer, the sensing device is: Strain gauge Capacitance probe Inductor capsule Electrodes	Electrodes
5	One or a certain number of smoke sensors are switched off during routine maintenance work to prevent false alarm. During coffee break the following precautions are taken: Leaving one of the ratings "on watch" Switching to UMS-mode, leaving one of the ratings "on watch". All alarms are reengaged prior to switching to UMS-mode Switching to UMS-mode, leaving alarms unengaged	All alarms are reengaged prior to switching to UMS-mode
6	In the diagram below we want to verify the resistance of the PT100 sensor. What is the correct calculation? R(Pt100) = R1 : R2 R(Pt100) = R1 - R2 R(Pt100) = R1 + R2 R(Pt100) = R1 x R2	R(Pt100) = R1 - R2
7	Which of the following letter combinations represents a level indicating controller on a process and instrumentation diagramv LIR CIL CIR LIC	LIC
8	When we are measuring level of liquids with a conductivity level indicator, the name of the sensing device is: Ionization chamber Capacitance probe Displacement probe Electrodes	Electrodes
9	Which of the following measurements will include a D/P transmitter in the control-loop Pressure Temperature Smoke indication Oil mist	Pressure
10	The pair of instruments necessary for generator synchronising are: kW meter and frequency meter Amp-meter and volt-meter Synchroscope and kVar-meter Voltmeter and synchroscope	Voltmeter and synchroscope

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 1

#	Question	Right answers
1	Why is an isolating valve fitted on the fire main from the engine room? To isolate the pump for repairs. To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the deck. In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room. To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running.	To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the deck.
2	How does a `quick closing` valve operate? The valve can only be opened and closed hydraulically. An independent mechanism closes the valve. The valve bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the valve to close. A retaining collar is released allowing the valve to close.	The valve bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the valve to close.
3	What is the name and function of the gate valve "BV" ? Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold. Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank. Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks. Main bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from Engine Room.	Main bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from Engine Room.
4	What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ? A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger. A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger. A finned bank block heat exchanger. A plate battery heat exchanger.	A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger.
5	What is part number 3? The clarifier. The suction filter. The purifier. The primary pump	The primary pump
6	Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted? As fire main isolating valves. As bilge suction valves. As fuel tank valves. As ballast tank valves.	As bilge suction valves.
7	From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the domestic fresh water system? 40 m3/hour x 55 metres. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres. 20 m3/hour x 25 metres.	5 m3/hour x 50 metres.
8	What part number is the pump shaft ? Number 2. Number 1. Number 5. Number 4.	Number 2.
9	In the pump illustrated what separates the suction and discharge pressures? The mouth ring. The mechanical seal. The pump body seal. The pump body cover seal.	The mouth ring.
10	Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium? Liquids having high air content. Pumping liquids against a high head pressure. Liquids mixed with solids. Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.	Liquids having high air content.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 2

#	Question	Right answers
1	Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in `Special Areas`? When proceeding Full Ahead. During the hours of darkness. Only in a case of emergency. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.	Only in a case of emergency.
2	What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump`s performance deteriorating over time? Wear of the gland neck bush. Wear of the pump housing. Cavitation of the impeller. Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.	Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.
3	If you find a leak on one of the tubes of this heat exchanger, what should you do ? Weld the tube tight. Put the heater out of commission. Seal off the tube with plugs hammered in both tube ends. Machine plugs and weld in place.	Seal off the tube with plugs hammered in both tube ends.
4	What must be fitted to the discharge of the pump in the drawing? Leak-off connection to cool the shaft gland. Pressure relief valve. Non return discharge valve. Manual by-pass valve.	Pressure relief valve.
5	What are gauze element filters designed to remove? Fine non-metallic solids. Metallic particles. Water and sludge. Coarse solids.	Coarse solids.
6	What type of pump is shown here? A piston pump. A screw pump. A centrifugal pump. A vane pump.	A centrifugal pump.
7	When would the main sea circulating system high sea suction valves be used? When the ship is in shallow water. When the ship is in ballast condition. When the ship is in polluted waters. When the ship is deeply laden at sea.	When the ship is in shallow water.
8	What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for? Where liquids are extremely viscous. Where there is a high air content. Where the liquid has a high temperature. Where liquids are not excessively viscous.	Where liquids are not excessively viscous.
9	What are items No. 6 on this pump ? The thrust plates. The shaft bearings. The shaft plates. The axial plummer pads.	The shaft bearings.
10	What is part No. 1 of this pump ? Main shaft locating bush. Main shaft bearing. The shaft locking collar. A metallic type mechanical seal.	A metallic type mechanical seal.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 3

#	Question	Right answers
1	When pumping cold oil with this pump, what precaution would you take? Throttle the suction valve. Start/stop the pump frequently. Throttle the discharge valve. Scew back the spring pressure on the pressure regulating valve.	Scew back the spring pressure on the pressure regulating valve.
2	What type of filters are fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines ? Perforated plate filters. Mesh wire filters. Ball flush filters. Backflow filters.	Perforated plate filters.
3	When taking over the engine room watch, what should you look for on all operating worm wheel or gear type pumps ? The pump casing temperature. The pressure relief valve setting. Vibration and noise free operation. Free movement of the by-pass valve.	Vibration and noise free operation.
4	What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book? To record oily bilge levels. To record quantity of fuel onboard. To record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges. To record fuel consumption.	To record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.
5	What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump? By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief valve. By throttling the suction valve. By throttling the discharge valve. By fitting an orifice in the discharge line.	By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief valve.
6	What kind of valve is this ? A screw-down non-return valve. A fixed non-return valve or check valve. A high pressure control valve. A high pressure stop valve.	A fixed non-return valve or check valve.
7	What advantage does the gate valve have over globe valves? Can be throttled. No flow obstruction when fully open. Positive closing action. Low maintenance.	No flow obstruction when fully open.
8	On a centrifugal pump what would happen if the priming pump float valve stuck in the closed position? Priming pump would run hot. Pump would run hot. Pump would not prime. Pump would not deliver pressure.	Pump would not prime.
9	What material are large tube, heat exchanger covers manufactured from? Cast steel. Cast iron. Alloy steel. Bronze.	Cast iron.
10	If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ? Remove pump casing half, release coupling and take out pump assembly. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out pump assembly. Remove motor and intermediate shaft, remove shaft flange. Remove motor stool with motor and intermediate shaft complete	Remove pump casing half, release coupling and take out pump assembly.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 4

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the first check if difficulty is encountered when pumping bilges if the suction gauge reading is high? Clean the oil/water separator. Inspect pump internals for wear. Open the sea suction valve to prime pump. Check suction strainers and valves.	Check suction strainers and valves.
2	What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump? Discharge valve closed. Suction strainer blocked. Bilge empty. Pump impeller choked.	Bilge empty.
3	For which service would a gear pump be most suitable? Boiler feed water supply. Bilge pumping. Engine lub oil pressure supply. Engine cooling water circulating.	Engine lub oil pressure supply.
4	On a reciprocating pump piston, the rings are made of material with low elastic limit such as hard rubber, Bakelite etc. In order to be able to fit them in the piston grooves you will need to _____ heat them in boiling water for 20 to 30 minutes. put them on top of the boiler casing to warm up. use a special sliding tool. apply grease or vaseline to slide the rings on.	heat them in boiling water for 20 to 30 minutes.
5	What is the most common cause of failure of reciprocating bilge pumps? Debris holding suction or delivery valves open. Malfunctioning priming pump. Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings. Leaking piston rod gland.	Debris holding suction or delivery valves open.
6	If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that it is correctly assembled and no parts are touching, the reason could be _____ there is insufficient liquid supply to the pump. misalignment of the shaft. an obstruction on the discharge side. that the pump is not bled off properly.	misalignment of the shaft.
7	When are the high sea chests used ? When the ship is in polluted waters. When the ship is deeply laden at sea. When the ship is in shallow water. When the ship is in ballast condition.	When the ship is in shallow water.
8	Where is it necessary to use Screw Lift Valves? Bilge line valves. Main sea suction valves. Fuel tank valves. Ballast tank valves.	Ballast tank valves.
9	What is item "S" ? The automatic 15 ppm shut-down valve. A mesh type strainer. The sea suction valve of the pump. A shut-off valve.	A mesh type strainer.
10	What is Part No. 1 called ? The diffusor. The ejector. The nozzle. The sprayer.	The nozzle.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 5

#	Question	Right answers
1	The output pressure of a diesel engine lubricating oil pump is regulated by: A variable speed pump drive. A relief valve. A metering valve. An orifice.	A relief valve.
2	Which part is the diffusor ? Part 4. Part 1. Part 2. Part 3.	Part 3.
3	What generator cooling is sometimes used during dry-docking? Circulating fresh water tanks. Ballast pumps. Circulating fore or aft peak tanks. Ship`s sanitary system.	Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.
4	What is Part No. 5 called ? The volute chamber. The nozzle securing screw. The flange ring. The drain screw.	The nozzle securing screw.
5	According to regulations, on board ships it is necessary to have PUMP REDUNDANCY. What does this mean? A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately. All pumps in the engine room are duplicated. All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility. Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.	All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility.
6	What is the main advantage of a central sea water cooler system? More efficient cooling. Simple and short cooling water pipelines. Cheaper to install. Ease of cleaning.	Simple and short cooling water pipelines.
7	What is Part No. 6 ? The diffuser vanes. The impeller blade. The thrust washer. The impeller wear ring.	The impeller wear ring.
8	If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why? The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.	The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.
9	What is part number 4 ? A cover securing screw. A pressure adjuster. A vent screw. A drain screw.	A cover securing screw.
10	What is the purpose of Part No. 4 ? To prevent liquid moving upward. To hold the impeller and connect the motor. To support the shaft. To support the impeller.	To hold the impeller and connect the motor.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 6

#	Question	Right answers
1	How is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented? Special packing in the stuffing box. An air seal line from the compressed airline. The air pump fitted to the pump. A water seal line to the packing gland.	A water seal line to the packing gland.
2	What are items "W" ? Cargo hold bilge wells. Ballast water tanks. Hold deep wells. Side water tanks.	Cargo hold bilge wells.
3	What are parts 1 and 4 and what ensures the seal between them ? Part 1 = valve plate, part 4 = cast body, a seal. Part 1 = top cover, part 4 = valve casing, a joint. Part 1 = top plate, part 4 = casing, an O-ring. Part 1 = valve cover, part 4 = valve body, a gasket.	Part 1 = valve cover, part 4 = valve body, a gasket.
4	What would you do on first starting a gear pump if pumping cold oil? Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve. Throttle the suction valve. Start/stop the pump frequently. Start the pump with valves closed and gradually open.	Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.
5	What is shown here ? A centrifugal filter. A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter. A Fuel Oil pressure line filter. A seawater, basket suction strainer.	A seawater, basket suction strainer.
6	Generally vertical mounted pumps are used in ship engine rooms. Is it because of: It makes maintenance easier. They require less bearings than horizontal pumps. Floor space is usually more valuable than height. They give better performance than horizontal pumps.	Floor space is usually more valuable than height.
7	When assembling an "Endless Screw" type pump what results from insufficient axial or radial clearance? The pump will not deliver correct pressure. The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations. Pump will draw more load and quickly overheat. The pump will not pump.	Pump will draw more load and quickly overheat.
8	What would happen if a centrifugal pump priming pump had no water? Pump would run hot. Pump would not prime. Pump would not maintain a vacuum when running. Delivery pressure would be low.	Pump would not prime.
9	If a centrifugal pump does NOT pull a vacuum what is the most likely cause? Impeller vanes choked. Impeller/wear ring clearance excessive. Neck bush/shaft clearance excessive. Priming pump not functioning correctly.	Priming pump not functioning correctly.
10	What could cause overheating after pump overhaul if it is verified that assembly is correct? Obstruction on the discharge side. The pump is not bled off properly. Insufficient liquid supply to the pump. Tightness of the shaft.	Tightness of the shaft.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 7

#	Question	Right answers
1	What capacity would you consider most suitable for a ballast pump? 100 to 150 cubic metres/hour. 25 to 50 cubic metres/hour. 10 to 15 cubic metres/hour. 20 to 30 cubic metres/hour.	100 to 150 cubic metres/hour.
2	What type of filter is shown here ? A rotating filter. A magnetic filter. A cartridge type pressure line filter. A suction wire mesh filter.	A cartridge type pressure line filter.
3	When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the initial load? Suction and discharge valves closed. The suction valve closed. The discharge valve closed. The suction valve throttled.	The discharge valve closed.
4	What do you call the tanks in which heavy fuel oil is stored on board ? Heavy fuel oil tanks. Heavy fuel oil daily tanks. Heavy fuel oil settling tanks. Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks.	Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks.
5	What is part No. 2 ? The shaft key. The shaft securing nut. Impeller locking ring. The shaft taper section.	The shaft key.
6	Where would you find a duplex filter unit? In bilge piping. In fuel oil piping. In sea water piping. In starting air piping.	In fuel oil piping.
7	What do you call the gate valves "MP", "MS", "AP", "AS" located on deck ? Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves. Heavy fuel oil tank valves. Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves. Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves.	Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves.
8	How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker ? Via main bunker valve "B.V." to transfer pump "Tp". Via own pumps "P1" and "P2", the main bunker valve "BV" to valve "D". Via own pumps "P1" and "P2" to transfer pump "Tp". Via suction valve "S", the transfer pump, to discharge valve "D".	Via own pumps "P1" and "P2", the main bunker valve "BV" to valve "D".
9	What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead? Screw lift valves. Gate valves. Non-return screw down valves. Butterfly valves.	Non-return screw down valves.
10	In thermodynamic terms what is a `perfect fluid`. Fluid that remains unchanged through a working cycle. An inert gas. A fluid that cannot be compressed. Fluid that exhibits similar characteristics to fuel/air mixture.	Fluid that remains unchanged through a working cycle.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 8

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which of the following is the correct name for a void space between two tanks carrying different liquids ? A bilge. A drain tank. A deep tank. A cofferdam.	A cofferdam.
2	What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the filter body (3) ? The clamp on top of the filter cover. The filter`s gasket. The gasket pressed down by the filter cover`s clamp. The vacuum created in the filter.	The gasket pressed down by the filter cover`s clamp.
3	Which way will fluid pass through this valve ? From A to C. From B to A. From A to B. In either direction.	From A to B.
4	What is the component shown here ? A Defector. A Constructor. An Injector. An Ejector.	An Ejector.
5	Which is the outlet ? C. D. A. B.	A.
6	Which is the inlet ? D. A. B. C.	B.
7	Which is the correct parts description list of this suction filter ? 1 = Top cover , 2 = Filter, 3 = Cast steel pressure body. 1 = Top sealing plate, 2 = Filter element, 3 = Cast Iron body. 1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body. 1 = Body cover, 2 = Cartridge, 3 = Cartridge housing.	1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body.
8	When on passage, what should be the condition of the fire main? All pump and isolating valves closed. Pressurised at all times. Sea suction and fire main discharge valves open ready to pressurise the main when the fire pump is started. Drained and empty to prevent leakage at hydrants.	Sea suction and fire main discharge valves open ready to pressurise the main when the fire pump is started.
9	Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The purifying operation is referred to as _____ the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from water) and is called a two-phase operation. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is called a two-phase operation. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water, oil, dirt).	a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water, oil, dirt).
10	What is shown in this drawing ? A screw pump. A centrifugal compressor. A vane pump. A centrifugal pump.	A centrifugal pump.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 9

#	Question	Right answers
1	Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components? The rounded and the bellow gear. The driving and driven shaft gears. The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear. The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.	The driving and driven shaft gears.
2	Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump? Bilge and ballast. Fuel oil transfer. Boiler feed pump. Hydraulic winch power pack.	Boiler feed pump.
3	What is part No. 3 ? The Impeller securing washer. The impeller securing nut. The lower shaft seal. The lower shaft bush.	The Impeller securing washer.
4	What type of valve is shown here ? A screw-lift valve. A gate valve. A non-return valve. A check valve.	A screw-lift valve.
5	How can we maintain necessary NPSH? By control of liquid flow By increasing pump rpm By control of liquid temperature By reducing vapour pressure	By control of liquid flow
6	Centrifugal pumps and displacement pumps differ in several characteristics. Which of the following statements regarding a centrifugal pump is correct? A centrifugal pump is always fitted in a vertical possition. A centrifugal pump is designed to take suction from 30 - 35 meters heigth (suction height). The inlet is in the outer diameter of the impeller and the pressure discharge is in the center of the impeller. It is important that the rotation direction is correct to avoid dry running.	It is important that the rotation direction is correct to avoid dry running.
7	During operation: What is one of the most important differences between a centrifugal pump and a piston pump? A centrifugal pump does not need lubrication. A centrifugal pump can not go as low as a piston pump in the vacuum area. A piston pump is always driven by steam. It is easier to damage a centrifugal pump than a piston pump if they run dry.	It is easier to damage a centrifugal pump than a piston pump if they run dry.
8	On a ship installation it is preferable on vertical pumps to have shaft sealing at the pump upper only. For what reason? Adjustment of the seal if possible. Observance of conditions (i.e. leakage) if mechanically sealed. Containment of liquid in the pump over long idle periods. All of the mentioned alternatives.	All of the mentioned alternatives.
9	What is part number 1 in this drawing ? An end cover. A seal ring. The pump shaft. A ball bearing.	A ball bearing.
10	What type of pump of the below mentioned would be most suited for serving as a high pressure boiler water feed pump? Counter screw. Axial flow. Rotary base. Multistage centrifugal.	Multistage centrifugal.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 10

#	Question	Right answers
1	Where can wear most affect efficiency in a gear pump? In the gear shaft bearings. Casing/end gear clearance. Gear backlash. Shaft wear at gland.	Casing/end gear clearance.
2	In a centrifugal pump, low pressure regions may occur in the flow at points where high local velocities exist. If vapourisation occurs due to these low pressure areas then bubbles occur. Such formation and collapse of bubbles is very rapid, and can generate very high pressure hammer blows which results in pitting, noise, vibration, and a fall off in the pump efficiency. Is this known as: Fouling. Cavitation. Priming. Viscosity.	Cavitation.
3	If when in port there is an urgent requirement to pump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do? Pump bilges in a dirty oil tank or sludge tank and note in logbook. Pump the bilges over the sides via the oily water separator. Lower the bilges only during night time. Pump the bilges only to a shore or barge reception facility.	Pump the bilges only to a shore or barge reception facility.
4	What is part number 5 in this drawing ? The shaft seal. The pressure relief valve. The bearing holder. The end cover.	The end cover.
5	What is the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal on a centrifugal pump? If packing fails the pump can be kept running by tightening the glands, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be renewed to stop the leakage Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear but mechanical seals are not Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by liquid, but mechanical seals do not require cooling The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft	If packing fails the pump can be kept running by tightening the glands, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be renewed to stop the leakage
6	What is the correct parts description list of this pressurised filter ? 1 = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed filter cartridge, 3 = Filter body. 1 = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body. 1 = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body. 1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing.	1 = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed filter cartridge, 3 = Filter body.
7	What maximum oil content must oil/water separators generally discharge? 100ppm. 50ppm. 1000ppm. 500ppm.	50ppm.
8	What is part number 3 in this drawing ? A bearing. A cooling pipe. The gland packing. The stuffing box.	The gland packing.
9	After gear pump re-assembly what must be checked? Direction of rotation is correct. Gland is not tight. Discharge valve is open. Suction valve is open.	Direction of rotation is correct.
10	This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively ? The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload. The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output. The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur. The housing will be attacked by cavitation.	The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 11

#	Question	Right answers
1	What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess? Safety Construction certificate. Lloyd`s Machinery survey certificate. MCA pollution certificate. IOPP certificate.	IOPP certificate.
2	In a reciprocating pump what would NOT cause of loss of vacuum? Leaking suction/delivery valves. Leaking piston rod gland. Priming pump malfunction. Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings.	Priming pump malfunction.
3	While their respective characteristics differ in detail, which of the following main operating features do all positive displacement pumps have in common if they are working under non-cavitating conditions? All of the mentioned alternatives. Flow is almost directly proportional to speed. The pump will develop a discharge pressure equal to the resistance to be overcome, irrespective of speed. They are self-priming.	All of the mentioned alternatives.
4	In a pump with a single impeller rotating in a case or volute form, the fluid enters the impeller axially in the center. Relative to the impeller it continues radially, and discharges around the entire impeller circumference. Is this working principle called: Dynamic pressure pump (or roto-dynamic pump). Positive displacement pump. A radial suction pump. Neither of the mentioned alternatives	Dynamic pressure pump (or roto-dynamic pump).
5	What is part number 5 ? The pump shaft. The motor shaft. The pressure outlet. An air seal.	The motor shaft.
6	Why does the fluid pass through the valve from beneath the valve lid? With the valve closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland. There is less restriction to flow in this direction. There is less scouring of the valve seat at partial openings. The valve is easier to open.	With the valve closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.
7	What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ? A worm wheel pump. A gear pump. A piston pump. A vane pump.	A piston pump.
8	What are items "S" and what is their purpose ? Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping. Suction valves to pump the wells. Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system. Suction boxes to retain priming water.	Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system.
9	What is item No. 1 of this type of pump lay-out ? The pump coupling unit. The pump shafting system. The pump driving arrangement. The intermediate shaft assembly.	The intermediate shaft assembly.
10	What are items "V" ? Straight bilge gate valves. Non-return screw down valves. Vacuum suction boxes. Vacuum flap valves.	Non-return screw down valves.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 12

#	Question	Right answers
1	If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of the following actions would you take ? Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking. Prime the pump with sea water. All of these. Check that bilge well valves "B","C" and "D" are properly closed.	All of these.
2	What is the most commonly used packing for valve spindle glands? Mechanical shaft seal. Soft gland packing. Preformed lip seals Carbon sealing rings.	Soft gland packing.
3	What type of pump would normally be fitted at position "P" ? A centrifugal pump. A vane pump. A gear or screw displacement pump. A piston pump.	A gear or screw displacement pump.
4	What is the pumping capacity depending on when operating a centrifugal pump? Total pressure head Liquid temperature Suction pressure Liquid viscosity	Total pressure head
5	What is part No. 3 ? The housing. The diffuser. The impeller. The propeller.	The impeller.
6	The electric motor on one of your centrifugal pumps has for a period of time gradually been running at lower and lower Amp-load. The pump is still supplying water, but the pressure is reduced. Which of the below alternatives is probably the reason? The pump is running at lower speed due to short circuit in the electric motor. The pump has suction from many places at the same time. The pump has been more effective because the suction strainer has been removed. Inner diameter of impeller is bigger due to cavitations, or outer diameter reduced by erosion.	Inner diameter of impeller is bigger due to cavitations, or outer diameter reduced by erosion.
7	What is part number 6 ? A pressure adjusting scew. A drain plug. An inspection plug. A sacrificial anode.	A drain plug.
8	Which valve in the engine room must be kept closed if no bunker operations or transfer from the deep tanks are taking place ? Valve "D". The settling tank valve. Valve "BV". Valve "S".	Valve "BV".
9	What are the two main items in this drawing ? A centrifugal pump and an electric motor. A compressor and an electric motor. An electric motor and a screw pump. A hydraulic motor and a pump.	A centrifugal pump and an electric motor.
10	How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external temperature drops below it`s pour point ? By heating the oil with steam via steam coils or steam banks. By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered. By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank. By circulating it with the transfer pump.	By heating the oil with steam via steam coils or steam banks.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 13

#	Question	Right answers
1	Which of the following pumps will be damaged if the discharge valve is closed before the motor is stopped? Propeller pump Centrifugal pump Turbine pump Gear pump	Gear pump
2	Reduced capacity accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump results from the action of vapor pockets in the fluid being pumped caused by: Fluid friction Steam knock Cavitation Water hammer	Cavitation
3	A consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the discharge valve closed would be: Pump will overheat Relief valve will open Motor will overheat Motor overload will open	Pump will overheat
4	The purpose of the wear ring for the illustrated pump is to – Provide a replaceable wear surface for the shaft. Provide a replaceable wear surface for the pump housing/impeller. Support the end of the impeller. Absorb all impeller thrust.	Provide a replaceable wear surface for the pump housing/impeller.
5	What would happen if the cooling water is shut off the atmospheric condenser? Overpressure will occur in the condenser. All of the given options. Steam will blow from the air vent. The hot well will steam up.	All of the given options.
6	Before loosening pump covers how should the pressure be checked? Remove cover slowly. Checking the pressure gauge. Open and check vents are clear. Remove drain plug.	Open and check vents are clear.
7	What type of pump is the pump "P" ? A piston pump. A gear or worm wheel pump. A vane pump. A centrifugal pump.	A gear or worm wheel pump.
8	What is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump? Tank being transferred into is full. Malfunction of the electrical motor. Pump no longer pumping liquid. Malfunction of the pump.	Pump no longer pumping liquid.
9	Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if: 1 = Float reading on the tank, 2 = Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glass reading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 = Pneumatic gauging.? 1, 3 and 5. 2, 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 3. 2, 3 and 5.	1, 2 and 3.
10	Where is this type of valve usually found ? In piping of high pressure but limited flow. In piping with large flow but low pressure. In piping of high pressure and large flow. In piping of low pressure and low flow.	In piping with large flow but low pressure.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 14

#	Question	Right answers
1	In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ? In bilge piping. In fuel oil piping. In sea water piping. In starting air piping.	In fuel oil piping.
2	What is the purpose of the drain cock (3) on this filter ? To drain out the collected water. To drain the filter before cleaning. To drain the dirt out of the filter basket. To take samples of the liquid.	To drain out the collected water.
3	In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass? Tank overflow lines. Fresh water return piping and condensate line. Sea water lines to overboard. Lube oil pump discharge lines.	Tank overflow lines.
4	If the priming pump was not working how could a vacuum be raised on a centrifugal pump? Starting the pump with the sea suction valve open. Starting the pump with the suction valve closed. Starting the pump with the discharge valve open. Filling the pump by hand.	Starting the pump with the sea suction valve open.
5	In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections separated? Neoprene lip seals. Labyrinth seals. Mechanical garter spring seals. Machineable sealing rings.	Machineable sealing rings.
6	How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them? By perforated plating. There is no covering. By steel grid plates bolted in place. By very fine mesh grids.	By perforated plating.
7	Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly part No. 3 ? Mechanical seal, O-ring and water thrower. Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal. Mechanical seal and ball bearing. Shaft sleeve and ball bearing.	Mechanical seal and ball bearing.
8	What is shown here? A Dynamic valve. A Non return valve. A Two way valve. A Triple flushing valve.	A Non return valve.
9	How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in this pump casing adjusted ? By fitting shims on pump impeller. By fitting shims in coupled part, item No 2 on shaft. By adjusting distance/ height by screwed connection 2 on shaft. By fitting shims between motor shaft and intermediate shaft.	By adjusting distance/ height by screwed connection 2 on shaft.
10	Here are some capacities of engine room water pumps. Which one would be the Fresh Water Hydrophore Pump ? 40 m3/hour x 55 metres. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres. 5 m3/hour x 25 metres.	5 m3/hour x 50 metres.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 15

#	Question	Right answers
1	What item is essential to be fitted to a gear pump? Pressure relief valve. Pressure adjusting valve. Non-return suction valve. Non-return discharge valve.	Pressure relief valve.
2	What is the purpose of item No4, fitted to this pump ? It is a balance valve. It is a bleed-off valve. It is a delivery control valve. It is a filter.	It is a delivery control valve.
3	What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ? About 870 RPM. About 2300 RPM. About 1500 RPM. About 1150 RPM.	About 2300 RPM.
4	What are items No. 2 of this pump ? The driven end bearings. The shaft seals. Shaft collars. The shaft locating collars.	The driven end bearings.
5	When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you should start the pump with _____ the discharge valve closed. throttled suction valve. throttled discharge valves. the suction valve closed.	the discharge valve closed.
6	What is the purpose of a cofferdam? To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids. As an emergency storage space for bilge water. As a collection space for leaking pipe work. As a watertight barrier.	To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.
7	Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump would be the Fire and Ballast Pump ? 410 m3/hour x 20 metres. 110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres. 140 m3/hour x 30 metres. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres.	110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres.
8	If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on it`s inner seat, what is the minimum fixed lift height ? 10 mm. 20 mm. 15 mm. 12.5 mm.	15 mm.
9	What is part number 2 in this drawing ? The cam shaft. The distance piece. The connecting rod. The pump shaft.	The connecting rod.
10	What is part number 4 in this drawing ? The pump body. A cooling pipe. The connecting rod. The pump rotor.	The pump rotor.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 16

#	Question	Right answers
1	What is the component shown here ? A centrifugal pump. A rotor screw pump. A piston pump. A screw compressor.	A rotor screw pump.
2	If the centrifugal pump delivery pressure is low which would NOT be the cause? Excessive neck bush/shaft clearance. Choked impeller. Worn impeller. Excessive impeller/wear ring clearance.	Excessive neck bush/shaft clearance.
3	Where would you find a thermostatic control valve? In an engine lub oil system. In a fuel oil system. In an engine jacket water cooling system. In hydraulic ring main supply system.	In an engine jacket water cooling system.
4	What type of centrifugal pump is shown here ? Multi-stage, medium speed. Floating, self balancing, single stage. Self priming, single stage, high speed. Single stage, high speed.	Single stage, high speed.
5	Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells? Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging. They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded.	Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded.
6	What is part number 1 ? The thermostat pump. The fresh water pump. The fresh water generator. The salt water generator.	The fresh water generator.
7	How is the sealing ring (2) fitted on the butterfly valve plate ? It is kept in place by a retaining ring secured by countersunks. It is bolted on and secured by wiring. It is glued on a separate removable ring. It sits in a grooved bolted-on section.	It is kept in place by a retaining ring secured by countersunks.
8	What kind of valve is this ? A manually operated butterfly valve. A gear operated butterfly valve. A gear operated gate valve. A worm wheel operated gate valve.	A gear operated butterfly valve.
9	What are items No. 2 and No. 6 called ? Impeller support rings. Bearing sleeves. Water throwing seals. Impeller wear rings.	Impeller wear rings.
10	What is the purpose of the screw cap (1) in the picture ? To adjust the valve down if it is heard banging. To manually close the valve. To adjust the valve lift. To access the valve.	To adjust the valve lift.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 17

#	Question	Right answers
1	What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level? The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds. A visible alarm. An audible alarm. The discharge is dumped to the bilge.	The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.
2	What is this unit called ? A segmented seal unit. A flexible type rotating packing assembly. A shaft seal gland and packing. A mechanical shaft seal.	A shaft seal gland and packing.
3	What type of valve is shown here ? A 90 degree check stop valve. A 90 degree gate valve. An angle screw lift valve. An angle screw-down valve (non return).	An angle screw-down valve (non return).
4	Where are you most likely to find this kind of valve fitted ? In diesel engine starting air lines. On refrigerating machinery. On sea chests. On ballast lines.	On sea chests.
5	One of these pumps lacks self priming capacity. Centrifugal pump. Screw pump. Piston pump. Reciprocal pump.	Centrifugal pump.
6	What is part No. 1 ? The water throw ring. Shaft locking ring. The pump bearing. The mechanical seal.	The mechanical seal.
7	If the valve wheel of an extended spindle valve is free, but the valve does not seem to be not moving, what would you check first? To see if there is excess pressure on the valve. To check that the valve is not broken. Whether the valve is dirty. To see if the valve spindle is being turned.	To see if the valve spindle is being turned.
8	What is item No. 4 on this pump assembly ? The outer casing. The reinforcement frame. The motor stool. The pump top casing assembly.	The motor stool.
9	What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in `Special Areas`? No oil content is permissable. 15ppm. 25ppm. 50ppm.	15ppm.
10	Centrifugal purifiers are used on board ship _____ remove all the dirt and water from fuel and lubricating oil. to clean bilge water before discharging overboard _____ to clean fresh water before it is supplied for drinking. to ensure compressed air is clean before it is used.	remove all the dirt and water from fuel and lubricating oil.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 18

#	Question	Right answers
1	What action should you take during your watch if you find that more water than usual has collected in the bilge wells ? Pump the bilges overboard with the bilge pump. Pump the bilges overboard with the emergency bilge pump. Ask permission to pump the bilges via the 15 ppm oily water separator. Pump the bilges into the bilge collecting tank.	Ask permission to pump the bilges via the 15 ppm oily water separator.
2	Which type of pump would be most suitable for pumping large quantities such as oil cargoes ? Screw pumps. Gear pumps. Centrifugal pumps. Reciprocating pumps.	Centrifugal pumps.
3	Engine room piping colour coded yellow, carries which of the following ? Seawater. Lubricating oil. Fresh water. Compressed air.	Lubricating oil.
4	Which of the following statements is true about positive displacement pumps ? They are driven by compressed air. They are used where lower capacities and speeds are required. They will produce very high pressures. They are never used onboard ship.	They will produce very high pressures.
5	Flange joints or gaskets made from metal would be used in which of the following places ? Hot water system pipe flanges. Water pump casings. Engine exhaust flanges. Lubricating oil valve casing flanges.	Engine exhaust flanges.
6	Name the type of shut off valve that has a wedge which slides up and down ? A gate valve. A safety valve. A globe valve. A non-return valve.	A gate valve.
7	Compressed air lines are colour coded _____ White. Silver. Pink. Black.	Pink.
8	The main lubricating oil pumps would supply _____ salt water to the main engine. lubricating oil to the air compressors. lubricating oil to the main engine. fuel oil to the main engine.	lubricating oil to the main engine.
9	Which of the following best describes the hydraulic steering gear pump? It is a constant speed variable delivery pump. It is a variable speed constant delivery pump. The pump is of the centrifugal type. It is not driven by electric motor.	It is a constant speed variable delivery pump.
10	In an engine room, pipework coloured green carries which of the following ? Fresh water for drinking. Sea water. Lubricating oil. Fresh water for main engine cooling.	Sea water.

Pumping Systems, Operations. Test 19

#	Question	Right answers
1	A non-return valve can be identified from an ordinary valve by _____ its flanges. its handle. its spindle. an arrow on the body of the valve.	an arrow on the body of the valve.
2	Which of the following removes the oil from bilge water before the water can be pumped overboard ? Evaporators. Purifiers. Oil filters. Oily water separators.	Oily water separators.
3	Bilges must always be pumped to the sea via _____ the oil mist detector. the forecastle head. the oily water separator. the centrifugal purifier.	the oily water separator.
4	Oily water separators are used in which one of the following situations ? To separate water from lubricating oil. As part of the bilge pump system. To separate oil and water from refrigeration gas in the refrigeration cycle. To separate oil and water from compressed air systems.	As part of the bilge pump system.
5	Which of the following types of pump needs priming every time it is used ? A gear type pump. A centrifugal pump. A scroll type pump. A reciprocating pump.	A centrifugal pump.
6	In the engine room a pressure vessel half full of air and half of water that supplies water to the accommodation is called _____ an evaporator. a fresh water tank. a pneupress or hydrophore tank. a mains water supply.	a pneupress or hydrophore tank.
7	Positive displacement pumps are _____ used for pumping "large" capacities. not self priming pumps. self priming pumps. driven by compressed air.	self priming pumps.
8	On modern ships, which type of pump would be used for supplying lubricating oil to the main engine ? A large centrifugal pump. An axial flow pump. A scroll type positive displacement pump. A small gear type positive displacement pump.	A scroll type positive displacement pump.
9	Most pumps on modern ships are driven by which of the following ? Steam turbines. Electric motors. The main engine. Small diesel engines.	Electric motors.
10	Oily water separators perform which of the following ? They clean engine scavenges. They make sure that no raw sewage is pumped overboard. They make sure that no oil is pumped overboard. They remove the water from the fuel before it is burnt.	They make sure that no oil is pumped overboard.

The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions to _____________.

act as a backup brake in the event the mechanical brake should fail

automatically hold the load as soon as current to the machine is shut off

automatically govern the lowering speed of the load

automatically govern the hoisting speed of the load

Correct Answer : B

When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading effect" can be minimized by using a voltmeter with a/an ___________________.

input impedance much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured

input impedance much less than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured

sensitivity of less than 1000 ohms/volt

sensitivity of more than 1000 volts/ohm

Correct Answer : A

An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal from a _______________.

small generator mounted on the engine

bimetallic sensing device

stroboscopic sensing device

vibrating reed meter generating a voltage proportionate to engine speed

Correct Answer : A

A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kw meter currently indicates 163.6 KW, with a power factor of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, the KW meter reading would increase by ____________.

17.8 KW

23.4 KW

30.6 KW

37.8 KW

Correct Answer : B

A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature is known as a ___________.

resistor

thermistor

diode

thermopile

Correct Answer : B

The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in____________.

series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement

parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement

parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement

series with the load and in series with the meter movement

Correct Answer : A

Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of ___________.

brushes

slip rings

commutators

all of the above

Correct Answer : D

An operating characteristic appearing on the name plates of shipboard AC motors is _____________.

the type of winding

input kilowatts

temperature rise

locked rotor torque

Correct Answer : C

Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by means of ___________.

compensator starters

autotransformer starters

across-the-line starters

primary-resistor starters

Correct Answer : C

Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by __________________.

installing a light bulb in the pedestal stand

coating the switch box internals with epoxy sealer

venting the switch box regularly

using strip heaters inside the switch box

Correct Answer : D

Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be used. This element consists of a ______________.

cylindrical spring on the contact arm

conical spring on the contact arm

second bimetal element

second electromagnet

Correct Answer : C

Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled rectifier?

To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor.

For use as a voltage reference diode.

For sensing flame in an automated burner.

To eliminate power supply hum.

Correct Answer : A

The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water and ______________.

diluted sulfuric acid

potassium hydroxide

lead sulfate

zinc oxide

Correct Answer : B

Which of the damages listed can occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated?

Overheating of the winch motor.

Contamination of lube oil.

Sparking at the winch motor brushes.

Rapid corrosion of switch components.

Correct Answer : D

An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal amount of current is known as a/an ____________.

open circuit

short circuit

polarized ground

ground reference point

Correct Answer : B

A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the meters should be connected with _____________.

both meters in series with the resistance

both meters in parallel with the resistance

the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the resistance

the ammeter in parallel and the voltmeter in series with the resistance

Correct Answer : C

SOLAS regulations state that a normal source for emergency loads and power on a cargo vessel must be supplied from ____________.

emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard

emergency generator supply to the main switchboard

battery supply to the main switchboard

ship's service generator via the emergency switchboard

Correct Answer : D

A storage battery for an emergency lighting and power system must have the capacity to _____________.

close all watertight doors twice

open all watertight doors four times

open and close all watertight doors in six consecutive cycles within a 20 second period

none of the above

Correct Answer : A

SOLAS regulations require emergency diesel engine starting systems to have sufficient capacity to provide power for at least ____________.

three continuous starting sequences

six consecutive cranking cycles

nine repeated starts under load

twelve cranking periods of 5 seconds

Correct Answer : B

Which of the following statements is a Safety regulation concerning emergency generator diesel engines? (SOLAS / Cargo Ship Safety Construction Rules)

The fuel must have a flash point not less than 750F.

Emergency diesel engines must be capable of operating under full load in not less than 30 seconds after cranking.

The starting battery must produce 12 consecutive cranking cycles.

Emergency diesel engines must operate satisfactorily up to a 22.50 list.

Correct Answer : D

If an AC motor is started and produces 25 horsepower, the kW meter reading will increase by ___________.

18.65 kW

25.65 kW

30.65 kW

37.65 kW

Correct Answer : A

While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one ship's service shaft generator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring power, the cause for this casualty could be attributed to which of the following faults?

The micro switch at the generator speed trip vibrated open, allowing the main breaker to open via the under voltage trip.

Someone pushed the trip button to the "shore power" breaker.

The main air compressor suddenly stopped.

The standby generator started automatically and became motorized.

Correct Answer : A

Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting damage to electric components?

Carefully wiping off the components with a soft cotton rag.

Blowing a high velocity stream of compressed air rapidly across the components.

Using a vacuum cleaner to remove debris from the components.

Using carbon tetrachloride as a cleaning solvent to clean the components.

Correct Answer : C

Regarding an AC generator connected to the maIn electrical bus; as the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. These changes in armature reaction are compensated for by the _____________.

governor speed droop setting

voltage regulator

balance coil

phase-balance relay

Correct Answer : B

In an induction motor, rotor currents are circulated in the rotor by ________ _____.

slip rings and brushes

an armature and brushes

inductive reaction of the rotating statorfield

external variableresistors

Correct Answer : C

An electrical device which prevents an action from occurring until all other required conditions are met is called a/an ___________.

limit

monitor

modulator

interlock

Correct Answer : D

A circuit breaker and a fuse have a basic similarity in that they both _______ ______.

can be reset to energize the circuit

should open the circuit when overloaded

will burn out when an over current flow develops

all of the above

Correct Answer : B

The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled water and _____________.

hydrogen chloride

calcium chloride

sulfuric acid

muriatic acid

Correct Answer : C

Time delayed or delayed action-type fuses are designed to _____________.

prevent grounds in branch circuits

prevent opens in motor circuits

permit momentary overloads without melting

guard lighting and electronic circuits

Correct Answer : C

Silicon diodes designed for a specific reverse breakdown voltage, become useful as an electronic power supply voltage regulator, called _____________.

tunnel diodes

hot-carrier diodes

compensating diodes

Zener diodes

Correct Answer : D

Which of the following statements best describes the material known as varnished cambric?

Felted asbestos sealed with varnish.

Cotton cloth coated with insulating varnish.

Rubber insulation coated with a layer of tin.

Paper impregnated with mineral oil, specially wrapped with nonmetallic tape, and coated with varnish.

Correct Answer : B

A synchronous motor maintains synchronism with the rotating field because _____________.

field strength varies directly with rotors lIp

DC current applied to the rotor coils causes the rotor magnets to lock in with the rotating flux of the stator

the stator poles are dragged around due to the flux created by the excitation current

the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction

Correct Answer : B

What is the maximum allowable primary current of a 2 KVA step-down transformer with a four to one turns ratio if connected across a 440 volt line?

1.1 amps

4.5 amps

18.1 amps

27.7 amps

Correct Answer : B

The part of a fuse that melts and opens the circuit is made of _____________.

Copper and antimony

Steel and Babbitt

Aluminum or beryllium alloy

Zinc or an alloy of tin and lead

Correct Answer : D

Which of the following physical characteristics does a wound-rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel cage motor does not?

Slip rings

End rings

A centrifugal switch

End plates

Correct Answer : A

The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be decreased by raising the plunger further in to the magnetic circuit of the relay. This action _______ ____.

reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay

reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay

increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay

increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay

Correct Answer : D

Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers is provided by a/an ______ ____.

over voltage release

thermal acting trip

thermal overload relay

current overload relay

Correct Answer : B

Which of the listed logic gates is considered to be a BASIC building block (basic logic gate) used in logic diagrams?

NAND

NOR

All of the above.

Correct Answer : B

When choosing a battery for a particular application, major consideration should be given to the battery's _ _______ ____.

amp-hour capacity

terminal polarity

stability under charge

ambient temperature rise

Correct Answer : A

The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the _____________.

average temperature at any given latitude

normal temperature rise above the standard ambient temperature at rated load

average temperature rise due to resistance at 10% overload

permissible difference in the ambient temperature of the motor due to existing weather conditions

Correct Answer : B

The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person's voice over a sound-powered telephone circuit is obtained from ____________.

dry cell batteries

the ship's service switchboard

the emergency switchboard

the speaker's voice

Correct Answer: D

Local action in a nickel-cadmium battery is offset by _____________.

separating the positive and negative plates with plastic spacers

separating the positive and negative plates with resin impregnated spacers

adding a small amount of lithium hydroxide to the electrolyte

trickle charging

Correct Answer: D

The freezing point of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid battery will be _____________.

higher than in a discharged battery

lower than in a discharged battery

the same as in a discharged battery

higher than in a discharged battery, but the specific gravity will be less

Correct Answer : B

What is the maximum allowable primary current of a 2 KVA step-down transformer with a four to one turns ratio if connected across a 440 volt line?

1.1 amps

4.5 amps

18.1 amps

27.7 amps

CorrectAnswer: B

Which of the following conditions should be used to support the need to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the neutralization number?

A decrease in the viscosity of the oil

An increase in the viscosity of the oil

A change in the cloud point

A change in the floc point

Correct Answer: B

The purpose of bilge keels as an example is to reduce the amplitude of roll. What arrangements need to be made on a ship to achieve the following:

lower the center of gravity of the ship

reduce pitching

reduce yawing

Correct Answer: B

A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stroke pumps to ___________.

vent off any accumulated air from the system

drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its being started

assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to opening for major or minor repairs

prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage

Correct Answer: D

Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will result in most of the following conditions to occur?

Increased suction

Increased clearances

Vibrations

slippage

Correct Answer: B

After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be observed to insure even tightening of the gland?

Listen for a smooth, regular sound.

Measure the distance between the gland and the stuffing box with a rule.

Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heat as it is being tightened up.

Open the drain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make the distance even.

Correct Answer: B

The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the ____________.

dew point temperature

condensation temperature

psychometric temperature

absolute humidity temperature

Correct Answer: A

The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is ____________.

the same as the pressure in the lubricating system

less than the pressure in the lubricating system

greater than the pressure in the lubricating system

highest at the oil groove location

Correct Answer - C

Which of the main shaft segments listed below, that are connected with the main engine, are coupled to the tail shaft flange?

Thrust shaft

Stern-tube shaft

Intermediate shaft

Crank shaft

Correct Answer - C

Piping cross-sections over 30 cm in diameter are sized by the __________.

inside diameter

wall thickness

outside diameter

threaded diameter

Correct Answer - C

The ambient heat in an engine room which is identified by only a change in temperature is known as ____________.

sensible heat

latent heat

total heat

residual heat

Correct Answer - A

The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a variable stroke axial-piston pump used for steering gears is _____________.

3 or 5

5 or 7

7 or 9

9 or 11

Correct Answer - C

Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by _____________.

water in the fuel oil

excessive cycling

high fuel oil pressure

improper burner maintenance

Correct Answer D

An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric equipment. In addition to the resistance reading, what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log?

The maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine.

The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken.

The normal temperature rise of the machine.

The complete name plate data from the resistance test instrument used to obtain the reading.

Correct Answer : B

When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates _______________.

the tank is full

the tank may be partially flooded

the tank level has dropped

the tank is completely flooded

Correct Answer: B

A solid stream of water might be useful in fighting a burning oil fire on deck when it is used ____________.

to wash burning oil over the side

to provide cooling for the fire fighters

in conjunction with chemical foam

to cool the main deck

Correct Answer: A

A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air compressor is unable to completely retract. This will result in _________________.

overheating of the discharge valve

loss of moisture in the air charge in the receiver

frequent lifting of the intercooler relief valve

an abnormally low intercooler pressure

Correct Answer : D

The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration plant is the _____________.

latent heat of expansion

sensible heat of condensation

heat of compression

all of the above

Correct Answer : C

Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a result of ____________.

opening a valve too quickly

jamming a valve in the closed position

low pressure fluid flow through the pipeline

a scored valve stem

Correct Answer : D

Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by the use of ______________.

shaft sleeves

lantern rings

water defectors

water seals

Correct Answer : C

If the pointer fails to return to zero when a megger is disconnected, the_____________.

pointer is stuck

hair springs are burned out

megger is out of calibration

megger is operating normally

Correct Answer : D

The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly controlled by the ____________.

header supply valve

burner root valve

oil micrometer valve

fuel oil back pressure

Correct Answer : D

Fuses are rated in _____________.

voltage

amperage

interrupting capacity

all the above

Correct Answer : D

Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a substance in order to change it from a _____________.

solid to liquid

liquid to vapor

solid to vapor

all of the above

Correct Answer : D

The designation "schedule 80 extra strong " refers to ____________.

weight of steel plate

tensile strength of bolts

piping wall thickness

tube bursting strength

Correct Answer : C

Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using a ____________.

short tap

taper tap

plug tap

bottoming tap

Correct Answer : D

Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank _____________.

through a detachable hose connection

after passing through an activated charcoal filter

after chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption

through a solenoid operated three-way valve

Correct Answer : D

The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following conditions?

type of pump

condition of the shaft

length of time in use

all of the above

Correct Answer : D

Personnel working with refrigeration systems, and subject to the exposure of refgerants should wear _______________.

face shield

a respirator

rubber gloves

an all purpose gas mask

Correct Answer : A

The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its ___________.

ductibility

elasticity

malleability

fusibility

Correct Answer : C

If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause can be _______________.

contaminated fluid

pitted thrust rings

worn pintle bearings

obstructed suctions passage

Correct Answer : D

A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused by _____________.

wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle

pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests

rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests

high water levels in the last effect

Correct Answer : A

A generator has been exposed to water and is being checked for its safe operation. Therefore, it is necessary to _______________.

check for shorted coils with a explosimeter.

take moisture readings with a hydrometer

test insulation values with a megger

ground the commutator, or slip rings and run it at half load

Correct Answer : C

A ship is required to carry an Oil Record Book, and must maintain the book as per rules on board for _______________.

one year

two years

three years

four years

Correct Answer : C

Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated stern tube stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is expected to be in port for an extended period?

The stuffing box is continually flushed.

The drain connection is left opened.

The stuffing box gland is tightened.

The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced.

Correct Answer :C

Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?

Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.

Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling.

If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.

The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.

Correct Answer : C

In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon ________________.

the temperature of the hydraulic fluid

the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid

the temperature of the cooling water

all of the above

Correct Answer : D

The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil cooler is usually indicated by ___________.

clogged lube oil strainers

seawater leaking into the lube oil system

decreasing lube oil pressure

gradually increasing lube oil temperature

Correct Answer : D

The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by adding _____________.

refrigerant vapor to the receiver only

liquid refrigerant to the low side only

liquid refrigerant to the high side only

liquid refrigerant to the high or low side

Correct Answer : C

A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two stage, high pressure, air compressor can cause excessively high ________________.

second stage discharge pressure

first stage discharge pressure

pressure in the aftercooler

compressor final discharge temperature

Correct Answer : B

Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best suited for _____________.

low temperature use

high temperature use

use where alignment is critical

packing valves with badly grooved stems

Correct Answer : A

Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires an increase in the coil steam pressure in order to maintain capacity?

The brine density is improper.

Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale.

Impure distillate is being produced.

Shell vapor pressure is constantly decreasing.

Correct Answer : B

When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should ______________.

tap the outer race with a mallet

apply even pressure to the outer race

apply even force to the inner race

apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races

Correct Answer : C

Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to _____________.

frequently cutting out on over load.

frequently starting and stopping

running too fast

running too slow

Correct Answer : B

The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used _____________.

to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty

when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation

to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction

if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any other means

Correct Answer : D

In Vessel construction, beam brackets are triangular plates joining the deck beam to a _________________.

bulkhead

frame

stanchion

deck longitudinal

Correct Answer: B

The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air compressors are cooled by _____________.

water

oil

air

CO2

Correct Answer: C

A one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating characteristics?

It forces approximately 1000kgs of refrigerant through the evaporator per day.

It forces approximately 1000kgs of air per hour across the evaporator coils.

Its cooling power equals that of melting approximately 1000kgs of ice per day.

It contains approximately 1000kgs of refrigerant.

Correct Answer: C

Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?

Copper.

Copper and carbon.

Carbon.

Bronze.

Correct Answer: C

When using a handheld hacksaw, you should apply pressure only on the forward stroke ____________.

only when cutting thin wall tubing

only when cutting carbon steel

only when cutting conduit

at all times

Correct Answer: D

An important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor is for the oil to ____________.

have a high viscosity index

mix readily with refrigerant

have a high freezing point

have a low pour point

Correct Answer: D

If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air compressor is operating under load, you should check for ___________________.

a defective pressure switch or pilot valve

a leak in the intercooler piping

leakage through the low pressure unloader control diaphragm

leaking high pressure discharge valves

Correct Answer: D

The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with variable capacity, pressure atomizing burners, maintains steam pressure by ______________.

cycling on and off

changing fuel oil return pressure

changing the speed of a rotary cup

varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle

Correct Answer : b

An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric equipment. In addition to the resistance reading, what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log ___________________.

The maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine.

The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken.

The normal temperature rise of the machine.

The complete name plate data from the resistance test instrument used to obtain the reading.

Correct Answer : b

The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the ________.

shape of the file

coarseness of the file teeth

size of the file

cuts of the file

Correct Answer : B

A pump is defined as "a device that _____________."

produces pressure

imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level "A" to level "B"

creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations

is to develop a pressure differential

Correct Answer : B

Restrictions occuring in the small orifices of pneumatic control system components can be caused by _____________.

moisture in the compressed air supply

excessive dryness in the compressed air supply

pressure surging in the compressed air receiver

insufficient lubrication of the system components

Correct Answer : A

The principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its entering the expansion valve is to _____________.

increase the refrigerating effect by decreasing the amount of flash gas

allow the refrigerant to enter the throttling device in a saturated condition

increase the refrigerating effect by increasing the amount of flash gas

minimize the temperature drop of the liquid as it passes through the solenoid valve to the outlet side

Correct Answer : A

If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for ________.

the circuit breaker

for leaks in the suction piping

relief valve is not properly seated

the suction strainer

Correct Answer : A

While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure?

Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.

Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.

Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact.

Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.

Correct Answer : A

A primary element used with flow measurement devices highly suitable for liquids containing solids in suspension, is a ____________.

concentric orifice

convergent nozzle

venturi tube

pilot tube

Correct Answer : C

Some of the following are preferred refrigerants of the future

Carbon dioxide

Refrigerant 11

Refrigerant 502

Ammonia

Bromine

Argon

Correct Answer : b,c

In the air conditioning of a ship a “Comfort Zone” constitutes

Low humidity, low room temperature

Low humidity, moderate temperature

High humidity, moderate temperature

Very low temperature, moderate humidity

Correct Answer : b

An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the pump room bilges is to ______________.

transfer the oil to the sea chest

pump the oil into the slop tanks

discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide

pump the oil into a clean ballast tank

Correct Answer : b

Which of the processes listed, consumes the greatest amount of power while producing the greatest amount of heat?

Overcoming sliding friction

Overcoming rolling friction

Overcoming fluid friction

Overcoming oil wedge friction

Correct Answer : A

Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices of shipboard steam heating systems?

Provide constant steam service for equipment operating throughout the year.

Provide either a common or individual reducing station for each group of units requiring the same operating pressure.

Run all piping so it may be drained by gravity.

All of the above.

Correct Answer : D

A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the ______________.

discharge end being smaller than the suction end

small size of impeller

lack of moving parts

ease at which the wearing rings may be changed

Correct Answer : C

When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should _____________.

fill the unit with saltwater

fill the unit with descaling compound

completely drain the unit

tightly seal the unit to exclude air

Correct Answer : C

The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _____________.

inner tube

braided inner layer(s)

outer cover

outer armor

Correct Answer : B

Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing worn impellers and pump casings?

Close radial clearance between impeller hub and casing

Low rotational speed of impeller

Removable end plate

Replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings

Correct Answer : D

In any air system a safety device should be placed between any two points where air can be trapped between any two valves.

Which can be closed manually.

Between a non –return valve and a screw down valve.

Between a non-return valve and a U-bend of a pipe.

Between any valve and a nozzle.

Correct Answer : a and b

Some of the following are preferred refrigerants of the future

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Refrigerant 11

Refrigerant 502

Ammonia

Bromine

Argon

Correct Answer : c and d

In the air conditioning of a ship a “Comfort Zone” constitutes

Low humidity, low room temperature

Low humidity, moderate temperature

High humidity, moderate temperature

Very low temperature, moderate humidity

Correct Answer : b

The passenger spaces of a passenger ship is protected against major fires by a

High expansion foam system

High density CO2 system

By a mixture of fire detection, fire retardant, ‘A-1 class bulkhead, fire doors, fire insulation and elabrate sprinkler system.

High pressure steam system.

Correct Answer : c

Sand impregnated with chemicals is kept in metal containers with a shovel, in the engine room, for the following purposes

to cover small oil spills

to use along with cement for doing repair jobs.

for making the floor anti-skid by giving more friction.

for use as grinding paste in case of emergency.

Correct Answer : a

One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to _____________.

dry the air discharged from the intercooler

minimize the system's line pulsations

receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories

remove all traces of oil from the air

Correct Answer : B

Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the split inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the propeller shaft?

To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box.

To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship is waterborne.

To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating.

To provide a ready means for the entry of cooling water.

Correct Answer : B

Why should a person performing maintenance on an air compressor wire and tag the system valves closed?

To prevent the unexpected.

To protect the equipment.

To protect the operator performing the maintenance.

Each of the above is correct.

Correct Answer : D

One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.

stuffing box diameter

direction of rotation of the screws

pitch of the screws

type of driving gears

Correct Answer : C

The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start while undergoing repairs, is to ____________.

secure and tag the electrical circuit

place a crow bar in the flywheel of the unit

inform all persons in the area not to start the unit

make a log book entry

Correct Answer : A

At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage most likely be located?

Fuel oil service pump discharge flange

Fuel oil strainer

Fuel oil heater

Fuel oil flow meter

Correct Answer : B

The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with variable capacity, pressure atomizing burners, maintains steam pressure by ______________.

cycling on and off

changing fuel oil return pressure

changing the speed of a rotary cup

varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle

Correct Answer : B

An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric equipment. In addition

to the resistance reading, what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log?

The maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine.

The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken.

The normal temperature rise of the machine.

The complete name plate data from the resistance test instrument used to obtain the reading.

Correct Answer : B

When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should _______________.

tap the outer race with a mallet

apply even pressure to the outer race

apply even force to the inner race

apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races

Correct Answer : C

The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with _____________.

paraffin

oil

graphite

vegetable oil

Correct Answer : A

One characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results of centrifuging is ____________.

high TBN value

low oil floc point

low oil demulsibility

low oil neutralization number

Correct Answer : C

Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship's hull via the propulsion shaft?

Stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal

Deflector ring and drain

Spring bearings

Oiler rings

Correct Answer : A

With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic liquid is its ______________.

capability of causing brittle fractures

highly corrosive action on mild steel

vapor cloud which reacts violently with saltwater

toxicity at atmospheric pressure

Correct Answer : A

The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid while at its freezing temperature, is known as the latent heat of _____________.

fusion

vaporization

condensation

sublimation

Correct Answer : A

Which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can be caused by the use of an oil having a viscosity lower than specified?

Seal deterioration

Fast response and hunting

Increased power consumption

Oil film breakdown

Correct Answer : C

The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by ________.

passing it through the expansion valve

condensing refrigerant in the system condenser

passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on the suction side of the compressor

maintaining a high pressure on the system's receiver

Correct Answer : B

The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is ____________.

the same as the pressure in the lubricating system

less than the pressure in the lubricating system

greater than the pressure in the lubricating system

highest at the oil groove location

Correct Answer - C

Which of the main shaft segments listed below, that are connected with the main engine, are coupled to the tail shaft flange?

Thrust shaft

Stern-tube shaft

Intermediate shaft

Crank shaft

Correct Answer - C

Piping cross-sections over 30 cm in diameter are sized by the __________.

inside diameter

wall thickness

outside diameter

threaded diameter

Correct Answer - C

The ambient heat in an engine room which is identified by only a change in temperature is known as ____________.

sensible heat

latent heat

total heat

residual heat

Answer for Question No. 8 Correct Answer - A

The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a variable stroke axial-piston pump used for steering gears is _____________.

3 or 5

5 or 7

7 or 9

9 or 11

Correct Answer - C

Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by _____________.

water in the fuel oil

excessive cycling

high fuel oil pressure

improper burner maintenance

Correct Answer - D

An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston pump, as the pistons of an axial piston pump are positioned _________.

radially from the shaft

parallel to each other and to the shaft

parallel to each other but at a right angle to the shaft

at an angle to each other and to the shaft

Correct Answer - B

In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said to be _____________.

superheated

saturated

condensed

convected

Correct Answer - B

Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because _____________.

stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps

it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances this pump

they are essentially self-priming and produce a high suction lift

these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles

Correct Answer - C

The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits?

Reduce turbulence

Help with lubrication

Protect against electrolytic corrosion

All of the above

Correct Answer - A

It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and reseat quickly to __________.

give warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached

prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat

prevent valve pounding

provide sufficient blowdown

Correct Answer - B

The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to _______________.

cool the furnace to prevent pre-ignition

remove explosive vapors from the furnace

evaporate accumulated unburned fuel oil

provide sufficient air in the furnace to allow ignition of the fuel

Correct Answer - B

Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to _____________.

frequently cutting out on over load.

frequently starting and stopping

running too fast

running too slow

Answer for Question No. 5

Correct Answer : B

The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used _____________.

to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty

when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation

to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction

if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any other means

Answer for Question No. 6

Correct Answer : D

The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally ____________.

removed by cellulose type filters

gums, varnishes, and acids

always neutralized by oil additives

harmless and have no effect on system components

Answer for Question No. 7

Correct Answer : B

Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler plate?

Provides a surface for the application of force, or the installation of machinery.

Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding tape.

Absorbs machinery vibration.

Prevents valve stem over travel.

Answer for Question No. 8

Correct Answer : B

Which of the following statements represents the proper relative direction of flow through a globe valve?

Direction of flow through the valve is unimportant.

Direction of flow through the valve depends upon the type of seat design used in the valve.

Direction of flow should be from below the seat.

Direction of flow should be from above the seat.

Answer for Question No. 9

Correct Answer : C

A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled?

Compressed, condensed, and returned to the cargo tanks.

Vented to the atmosphere.

Burned in the boilers.

Mixed with nitrogen and recirculated through the primary barrier.

Burnt off in a controlled manner through a chimney smoke stack from within the funnel.

Answer for Question No. 10

Correct Answer : C

Which of the following conditions should be used to support the need to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the neutralization number?

A decrease in the viscosity of the oil

An increase in the viscosity of the oil

A change in the cloud point

A change in the floc point

Correct Answer: B

The purpose of bilge keels as an example is to reduce the amplitude of roll. What arrangements need to be made on a ship to achieve the following:

lower the center of gravity of the ship

reduce pitching

reduce yawing

Correct Answer: B

A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stroke pumps to ___________.

vent off any accumulated air from the system

drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its being started

assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to opening for major or minor repairs

prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage

Correct Answer: D

Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will result in most of the following conditions to occur?

Increased suction

Increased clearances

Vibrations

slippage

What conditions would occur if the speed at which the pump is operated is well below the rated speed.

Correct Answer: B

After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be observed to insure even tightening of the gland?

Listen for a smooth, regular sound.

Measure the distance between the gland and the stuffing box with a rule.

Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heat as it is being tightened up.

Open the drain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make the distance even.

Correct Answer: B

The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the ____________.

dew point temperature

condensation temperature

psychometric temperature

absolute humidity temperature

Correct Answer: A